CET Studying - Flashcards for and by Computer Engineering Technician Students

Programming - PHP

Question: Which function outputs text in PHP?

Options:

echo
print_r
var_dump
write

Programming - PHP

Question: The _______ starts a PHP script.

Programming - PHP

Question: Which operator concatenates strings?

Options:

.
+
&
=

Programming - PHP

Question: Match PHP functions with outputs:

Options:

echo
print_r
var_dump

Programming - PHP

Question: Explain how echo works.

Programming - PHP

Question: Which keyword declares a variable?

Options:

$
var
let
declare

Programming - PHP

Question: A _______ defines a function.

Programming - PHP

Question: Which function checks variable type?

Options:

gettype
typeof
type
vartype

Programming - PHP

Question: Match variable functions with uses:

Options:

gettype
isset
empty

Programming - PHP

Question: Describe how isset works.

Programming - PHP

Question: Which statement controls flow?

Options:

if
for
while
All of these

Programming - PHP

Question: The _______ loops through arrays.

Programming - PHP

Question: Which keyword includes files?

Options:

include
require
import
Both A and B

Programming - PHP

Question: Match include types with behavior:

Options:

include
require
require_once

Programming - PHP

Question: Explain how require differs from include.

Programming - PHP

Question: Which function starts a session?

Options:

session_start
start_session
session
begin_session

Programming - PHP

Question: A _______ stores session data.

Programming - PHP

Question: Which function redirects pages?

Options:

header
redirect
location
goto

Programming - PHP

Question: Match session functions with roles:

Options:

session_start
session_destroy
header

Programming - PHP

Question: Describe how sessions work in PHP.

Programming - PHP

Question: Which function connects to MySQL?

Options:

mysqli_connect
mysql_connect
db_connect
connect_db

Programming - PHP

Question: The _______ queries a database.

Programming - PHP

Question: Which function fetches query results?

Options:

mysqli_fetch_assoc
fetch_result
get_result
result_fetch

Programming - PHP

Question: Match DB functions with uses:

Options:

mysqli_connect
mysqli_query
mysqli_fetch_assoc

Programming - PHP

Question: Explain how mysqli_connect works.

Programming - PHP

Question: Which keyword defines a class?

Options:

class
object
define
struct

Programming - PHP

Question: A _______ creates an object.

Programming - PHP

Question: Which keyword extends classes?

Options:

extends
implements
inherits
uses

Programming - PHP

Question: Match OOP terms with keywords:

Options:

class
extends
new

Programming - PHP

Question: Describe how classes work in PHP.

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: The outcome of the analysis phase is:

Options:

Feasibility analysis document
System proposal document
System specification document
System request document
Business process document

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: The outcome of the planning phase is:

Options:

Test plan
System proposal document
System specification document
System request document
Business process document

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: The outcome of the design phase is:

Options:

Feasibility analysis document
System proposal document
System specification document
System request document
Business process document

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Another outcome of the planning phase is:

Options:

Feasibility analysis document
Project plan
System specification document
System proposal document
Business process document

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Which is NOT true for systems analysts?

Options:

They create value for an organization
They enable the organization to perform work better
They do things and challenge the current way that an organization works
They play a key role in information systems development projects
They are the project sponsors for system proposals

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Which is NOT an attribute of a systems analyst?

Options:

Understanding what to change
Knowing how to change it
Convincing others of the need to change
Serving as a change agent
Selecting which projects to approve

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Which of the following project roles would identify how technology can improve business processes?

Options:

Systems analyst
Business analyst
Infrastructure analyst
Change management analyst
Requirements analyst

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Which of the following project roles would ensure that the system conforms to information systems standards?

Options:

Systems analyst
Business analyst
Infrastructure analyst
Change management analyst
Project manager

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Which of the following project roles would focus on stakeholder requirements?

Options:

Systems analyst
Business analyst
Infrastructure analyst
Change management analyst
Requirements analyst

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Which of the following project roles would serve as a primary point of contact for a project?

Options:

Systems analyst
Business analyst
Infrastructure analyst
Change management analyst
Project sponsor

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Which of the following project roles would analyze the key business aspects of the system?

Options:

Systems analyst
Business analyst
Infrastructure analyst
Change management analyst
Project manager

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Michaela is a systems analyst who is determining business requirements. What would most likely be the SDLC phase for her?

Options:

Planning
Analysis
Design
Implementation
Business requirements are not developed by systems analysts, but by business analysts

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Chang is working on 'How will this system work.' What SDLC phase is he in?

Options:

Planning
Analysis
Design
Implementation
Transition

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Joan’s project is to take a fairly straightforward manual process and make it an electronic process. This will make the processing more efficient. Which of the following requirements analysis strategies is she using?

Options:

Business process automation
Business process improvement
Business process internalization
Business process reengineering
Business process renovation

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Wayne is a senior director of finance. His company only recently came under Sarbanes-Oxley regulations and is the project sponsor to become compliant. He is leaning towards:

Options:

Business process automation
Business process improvement
Business process internalization
Business process reengineering
Business process renovation

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Moderate changes to existing processes fall under the _________ analysis.

Options:

Business process automation (BPA)
Business process improvement (BPI)
Business process reengineering (BPR)
Business process blue-skying (BPB)
Business process efficiency (BPE)

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Alice is calculating whether a system will lower costs or increase revenues. What SDLC phase is she in?

Options:

Planning
Analysis
Design
Implementation
Evaluation

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Which was NOT given as a method for determining business requirements?

Options:

Benchmarking
Interviewing
Observation
Document analysis
Questionnaires and surveys

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Which would normally NOT be a reason for a project?

Options:

When a business need has been identified
A consultant has suggested a new customer relationship management system
An open source platform has just come on the market
An existing system just isn’t working properly and the workaround is tedious
To support a new business initiative

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Which phase is generally the longest and most expensive part of the development process?

Options:

Planning
Analysis
Design
Implementation
Feasibility

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Because the cost can be immense, _________ is one of the most critical steps in implementation.

Options:

Documentation
Coding
Testing
Developing a conversion strategy
Training

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: PCM Incorporated will need to purchase new servers for a system. This would be a:

Options:

Development cost
Operating cost
Ongoing cost
Intangible cost
Intangible benefit

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Linda is a clerk in the accounting department. She was interviewed by David and is excited about the proposed system that will utilize electronic funds transfer. This would be an example of ______.

Options:

Tangible benefit
Cash flow
Break-even analysis
Intangible benefit
Return on investment

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Ramya is preparing an economic feasibility study. She has a calculation where she takes total benefits minus total costs and divides that answer by the total costs. She is calculating:

Options:

Cash flow
Return on investment
Break-even point
Net present value
Internal rate of return

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Ramona is preparing an economic feasibility study. She is calculating the payback period. She is calculating:

Options:

Cash flow
Return on investment
Break-even point
Net present value
Internal rate of return

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Robert is doing an economic analysis using today’s dollar values. He is doing:

Options:

Cash flow analysis
Return on investment analysis
Break-even point analysis
Net present value analysis
Internal rate of return analysis

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: TJ has prepared a spreadsheet where the total benefits are $182,000; the total cumulative costs are $120,000. The ROI would be:

Options:

$62,000
About 34%
About 51.7%
About 65.3%
Less than 20%

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Which of the following project roles would probably make a presentation about the objectives of a proposed project and its benefits to executives who will benefit directly from the project?

Options:

Requirements analyst
Systems analyst
Project manager
Champion
Chief Information Officer (CIO)

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Which is an activity the users probably will NOT do on a project?

Options:

Make decisions that influence the project
Budget funds for the project
Perform hands-on activities for the project
Be assigned specific tasks to perform (with clear deadlines)
Have some official roles on the project team

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: The type of skill that is common to systems analysts to deal fairly and honestly with other project team members is:

Options:

Technical
Business
Analytical
Interpersonal
Ethical

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: The type of skill that is common to systems analysts to understand how IT can be applied to business situations and to ensure that IT delivers real business value is:

Options:

Technical
Business
Analytical
Interpersonal
Ethical

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Rocky is dealing one-on-one with users and business managers (including some that have little experience with technology). He is demonstrating what system analyst skill?

Options:

Technical
Business
Analytical
Interpersonal
Ethical

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Becky is a systems analyst for Laswell Consulting. She is attending a three-day intensive workshop on developing applications in PHP. What systems analyst skill is she working on?

Options:

Technical
Business
Analytical
Interpersonal
Ethical

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Jack is going over financial numbers for a proposed project. Which of the following system analyst skills is he exhibiting currently?

Options:

Technical
Business
Analytical
Interpersonal
Management

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Amy is planning on talking with a clerk and a manager in the accounts payable area, a manager in the procurement department, and two vendors. She is probably doing:

Options:

Observation
Interviews
JAD
Documentation analysis
Organizational Feasibility

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: Kallie is creating use cases, data flow diagrams, and entity relationship diagrams. In what phase of the SDLC would she do this?

Options:

Planning
Analysis
Design
Construction
Implementation

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: The primary goal of a system is to create value for the organization.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: Systems analysis and design projects are highly effective, with less than 3% of all projects cancelled or abandoned.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: Systems that are cancelled or abandoned are frequently due to a lack of clarity about how the system should support an organization’s goals and improve processes.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: The key person in the SDLC is the systems analyst who analyzed the business situation, identifies opportunities for improvements and designs an information system to implement the improvements.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: Systems analysts are generally experts in business, finance, and application development.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: When compared to a business analyst, the systems analyst will identify how the system will provide business value.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: The business analyst role focuses on the business issues surrounding the system.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: When compared to a systems analyst, the business analyst will probably have more responsibility for determining business value.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: Because of the need to be focused on providing information about the business value of a system, a systems analyst will probably have much training or experience in programming or application development.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: The requirements analyst role includes complete and accurate determination of what the system requirements consist of for all stakeholders.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: The SDLC generally can be broken into four phases: planning, analysis, design and implementation.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: In SDLC, analysis is generally divided into three steps: understanding the as-is system; developing a cost-benefit analysis; and understanding the technical feasibility.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: Anne has asked users and managers to identify problems with the as-is system and to describe how to solve them in the to-be system. She is probably in the analysis phase of SDLC.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: Determining business requirements is generally done in the planning phase of the SDLC.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: The primary output of the planning phase is the system request.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: The primary output of the analysis phase is the system proposal.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: The normal sequence of SDLC phase outputs (from beginning to end) would be: system request; system proposal; system specifications; and installed system.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: The question ‘Can we build it’ is asked in the design phase.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Question: True / False: Interviewing is generally done in the analysis phase of the SDLC.

Options:

True
False

Systems Analysis - Chapter 2

Question: A critical success factor in project management is to do which of the following?

Options:

Say 'no' to all requests as they add to ‘scope creep’
Use throwaway prototyping
Use a CASE tool to delineate requirements from work tasks
Start with a realistic assessment of the work that needs to be done
Hire an outside project management consulting group

Systems Analysis - Chapter 2

Question: Which is a true statement about IT projects?

Options:

Most IT departments face a demand for IT projects that far exceed the ability to do them.
Project Managers must be certified as PMP (Project Management Professionals)
Project estimates tend to have a built-in buffer of time
Project teams of 12 to 15 are generally considered optimum
The majority of projects taken on by IT departments are not strategic to the business

Systems Analysis - Chapter 2

Question: Which is NOT suggested for IT development projects?

Options:

Projects need to be prioritized
Projects need to be carefully selected
Projects need to be carefully managed
Projects need to give a positive return on investment within four years
Projects need to give value to the business

Systems Analysis - Chapter 2

Question: Which would generally NOT be taken into consideration for project portfolio management in an organization?

Options:

The number of large projects
The number of tactical projects
The number of high risk projects
The number of strategic projects
The number of financially feasible projects

Systems Analysis - Chapter 2

Question: The V-model pays more explicit attention to ___________:

Options:

Iteration
Return on investment (ROI)
Business Value (the 'V')
Testing
Prototyping

Systems Analysis - Chapter 2

Question: RAD is an acronym for:

Options:

Real Application Development
Rapid Application Design
Rapid Authentic Development
Real Autonomous Development
Rapid Application Development

Systems Analysis - Chapter 2

Question: Which of the following might result in version 1; version 2 (etc.) of a system?

Options:

System Prototyping
Waterfall Development
Iterative Development
System prototyping
Parallel Development

Systems Analysis - Chapter 2

Question: System prototyping is BEST characterized as:

Options:

A ‘Quick and Dirty’ system
A series of versions
A method for exploring design alternatives
A method for stressing customer satisfaction
More explicit testing

Systems Analysis - Chapter 2

Question: Throwaway prototyping is BEST characterized as:

Options:

A ‘quick and dirty’ system
A series of versions
A method for exploring design alternatives
A method for stressing customer satisfaction
More explicit testing

Systems Analysis - Chapter 2

Question: Parallel methodology is BEST characterized as:

Options:

A ‘Quick and Dirty’ system
A series of versions
A method for exploring design alternatives
A method for stressing customer satisfaction
More explicit testing

Systems Analysis - Chapter 2

Question: Extreme Programming (XP) is BEST characterized as:

Options:

A ‘Quick and Dirty’ system
A series of versions
A method for exploring design alternatives
A method for emphasizing customer satisfaction
More explicit testing

Systems Analysis - Chapter 2

Question: What is the MAIN difference between systems prototyping and throwaway prototyping?

Options:

Systems prototyping involves users while throwaway prototyping does not
Throwaway prototyping involves users while systems prototyping does not
Systems prototyping is a rapid application development methodology; while throwaway prototyping is not
Systems prototyping works with users to quickly develop a simplified working version of the proposed system; while throwaway prototyping focuses more on exploring design alternatives
Throwaway prototyping develops systems that will be used as ‘stop-gap’ systems – and generally for less than six months; while systems prototyping results in systems that will be used extensively for several years.

Systems Analysis - Chapter 2

Question: Which of the following methodologies might be most appropriate if you have a system project with: clear requirements; very familiar technologies; not all that complex; reasonably reliable; a very long time schedule, and the schedule visibility is not important?

Options:

Waterfall
Parallel
Iterative
System prototyping
Throwaway prototyping

Systems Analysis - Chapter 2

Question: Which of the following methodologies might be most appropriate if you have a system project with: unclear user requirements; unfamiliar technologies; somewhat complex; needs to be reliable; time is not an issue and the schedule visibility is somewhat important?

Options:

Waterfall
Parallel
Iterative
System prototyping
Throwaway prototyping

Systems Analysis - Chapter 2

Question: Which of the following methodologies might be most appropriate if you have a system project with: clear requirements; very familiar technologies; not all that complex; reasonably reliable; a short time schedule and the schedule visibility is not important?

Options:

Waterfall
Parallel
Iterative
System prototyping
Throwaway prototyping

Systems Security - Cybersecurity Basics

Question: What is a common type of malware?

Options:

Virus
Browser
Router
Firewall

Systems Security - Cybersecurity Basics

Question: What does phishing aim to steal?

Systems Security - Network Security

Question: A _______ attack attempts to overwhelm a server with traffic.

Systems Security - Network Security

Question: Which protocol secures web traffic?

Options:

HTTP
HTTPS
FTP
SMTP

Systems Security - Data Protection

Question: Explain why encryption is important for securing sensitive data.

Systems Security - Data Protection

Question: What is a common encryption standard for Wi-Fi?

Options:

WEP
WPA2
MD5
SHA-1

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Which Cisco command enables SSH on a router?

Options:

ssh enable
crypto key generate rsa
ip ssh version 2
enable ssh

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: A _______ isolates network segments to enhance security.

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Match network security tools with their functions:

Options:

Firewall
IDS
VLAN

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Explain how VLANs improve network security.

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Which protocol encrypts data over a VPN?

Options:

IPsec
HTTP
FTP
SNMP

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: What does ACL stand for?

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Which command sets a VLAN IP address?

Options:

ip address 192.168.1.1
vlan ip 192.168.1.1
interface vlan 10
ip vlan 10

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: A _______ attack targets network availability.

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Match security protocols with their uses:

Options:

SSL/TLS
IPsec
SSH

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Describe the purpose of a DMZ.

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Which layer does VLAN operate at?

Options:

Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: The _______ command displays VLAN info.

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Which security measure uses MAC addresses?

Options:

ACL
Port security
VLAN
NAT

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: A _______ network uses public infrastructure.

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Match network devices with security roles:

Options:

Router
Switch
Firewall

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Explain the role of NAT in security.

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Which command sets a router password?

Options:

enable password
set password
passwd
login password

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: A _______ prevents unauthorized access.

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Which protocol uses port 22?

Options:

FTP
SSH
Telnet
HTTP

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: The _______ command shows interface status.

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Match security features with descriptions:

Options:

ACL
NAT
VPN

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Describe how ACLs enhance security.

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Which command configures a VLAN?

Options:

vlan 10
set vlan 10
interface vlan 10
vlan config 10

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: A _______ key secures SSH sessions.

Systems Security - Module 1: Securing Networks

Question: Which protocol secures web traffic?

Options:

HTTP
HTTPS
FTP
SMTP

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Which attack floods a network with traffic?

Options:

Phishing
DDoS
Spoofing
MITM

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: A _______ attack tricks users into revealing info.

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Match attack types with descriptions:

Options:

DDoS
Phishing
MITM

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Explain how a DDoS attack disrupts services.

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Which attack impersonates a legitimate source?

Options:

Spoofing
Brute Force
SQL Injection
XSS

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: A _______ attack tries multiple password combinations.

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Which attack intercepts communication?

Options:

Phishing
DDoS
MITM
Spoofing

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Match threat types with examples:

Options:

Malware
Phishing
DoS

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Explain how spoofing compromises security.

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Which attack injects malicious code into a website?

Options:

XSS
SQL Injection
Phishing
DDoS

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: A _______ attack targets database vulnerabilities.

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Which attack uses social engineering?

Options:

Phishing
DDoS
Spoofing
MITM

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Match mitigation techniques to threats:

Options:

Firewall
Antivirus
User Training

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Describe how MITM attacks work.

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Which attack exploits ARP?

Options:

ARP Spoofing
DDoS
Phishing
SQL Injection

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: A _______ attack overwhelms a single system.

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Which attack uses stolen credentials?

Options:

Phishing
Credential Stuffing
Spoofing
MITM

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Match attack vectors with descriptions:

Options:

Email
Network
Web

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Explain the impact of ransomware.

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Which attack targets DNS?

Options:

DNS Spoofing
Phishing
DDoS
MITM

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: A _______ attack disrupts service availability.

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Which attack uses malicious scripts?

Options:

XSS
SQL Injection
Phishing
DDoS

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Match attack goals with methods:

Options:

Data Theft
Disruption
Deception

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Describe how phishing campaigns are executed.

Systems Security - Module 2: Network Threats

Question: Which attack exploits unpatched software?

Options:

Exploit
Phishing
DDoS
MITM

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Which command limits traffic rate?

Options:

rate-limit
traffic-shape
ip limit
bandwidth

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: A _______ reduces DoS attack impact.

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Match mitigation tools with functions:

Options:

IDS
Firewall
Rate Limiting

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Explain how rate-limiting mitigates threats.

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Which tool detects intrusions?

Options:

IDS
Firewall
NAT
VPN

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: The _______ command shapes traffic.

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Which method blocks malicious IPs?

Options:

ACL
NAT
VPN
IDS

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Match mitigation strategies with goals:

Options:

Patching
Filtering
Monitoring

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Describe how IDS mitigates threats.

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Which command applies an ACL?

Options:

ip access-group
access-list apply
interface acl
apply acl

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: A _______ prevents network overload.

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Which tool logs network events?

Options:

Syslog
Firewall
NAT
VPN

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Match logging tools with uses:

Options:

Syslog
NetFlow
SNMP

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Explain how firewalls mitigate threats.

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Which command enables logging?

Options:

logging enable
log on
enable log
logging start

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: A _______ blocks suspicious traffic.

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Which tool analyzes traffic patterns?

Options:

NetFlow
Syslog
Firewall
IDS

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Match mitigation actions with tools:

Options:

Block
Detect
Analyze

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Describe how patching mitigates threats.

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Which command sets a traffic policy?

Options:

policy-map
traffic-policy
set policy
policy set

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: A _______ detects anomalies.

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Which tool prevents DDoS?

Options:

Rate Limiting
NAT
VPN
Syslog

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Match threat types with mitigations:

Options:

DDoS
Malware
Phishing

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Explain how user training mitigates threats.

Systems Security - Module 3: Mitigating Threats

Question: Which command monitors traffic?

Options:

show traffic
monitor traffic
traffic monitor
show ip traffic

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Which command sets a console password?

Options:

line con 0
password cisco
login
All of these

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: A _______ secures device login.

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Match access methods with commands:

Options:

Console
VTY
Enable

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Explain why strong passwords are critical.

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Which command enables login?

Options:

login
enable login
set login
login on

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: The _______ command sets a VTY password.

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Which protocol secures remote access?

Options:

Telnet
SSH
FTP
HTTP

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Match security levels with commands:

Options:

User
Privileged
VTY

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Describe how SSH secures access.

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Which command restricts VTY access?

Options:

access-class
restrict vty
vty access
limit vty

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: A _______ timeout enhances security.

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Which command sets a timeout?

Options:

exec-timeout
timeout
set timeout
limit time

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Match timeout settings with effects:

Options:

5 0
0 0
10 0

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Explain how timeouts secure devices.

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Which command disables Telnet?

Options:

no telnet
disable telnet
transport input ssh
telnet off

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: A _______ key is used for SSH.

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Which command generates SSH keys?

Options:

crypto key generate rsa
ssh key
generate ssh
key ssh

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Match access types with security:

Options:

Console
SSH
Telnet

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Describe why Telnet is insecure.

Systems Security - Module 13

Question: What is the purpose of the command: address ipv4 10.1.1.50 auth-port 1812 acct-port 1813?

Options:

It identifies the address of the RADIUS server and ports on the server used for RADIUS traffic.
It identifies the address of the RADIUS server and the ports used for EAPOL messages.
It identifies the address of the default gateway and the ports used for traffic destined for remote networks.
It identifies the address of the switch to which the client connects and the ports used for the EAPOL messages.

Systems Security - Module 13

Question: Which device is used as the authentication server in an 802.1X implementation?

Options:

Ethernet switch
Wireless router
Access point
RADIUS server

Systems Security - Module 13

Question: What are two main capabilities of a NAC system? (Choose two.)

Options:

Route filtering
DMZ protection
Incident response
Security posture check
Administrative role assignment

Systems Security - Module 13

Question: Which Cisco appliance can be used to filter network traffic contents to report and deny traffic based on the web server reputation?

Options:

ASA
AVC
ESA
WSA

Systems Security - Module 13

Question: Which command is used to enable AAA as part of the 802.1X configuration process on a Cisco device?

Options:

aaa new-model
aaa authentication dot1x
dot1x pae authenticator
dot1x system-auth-control

Systems Security - Module 13

Question: The switch port to which a client attaches is configured for the 802.1X protocol. The client must authenticate before being allowed to pass data onto the network. Between which two 802.1X roles is EAP data encapsulated using RADIUS? (Choose two.)

Options:

Encrypter
Supplicant
Authenticator
Authentication server
Data nonrepudiation server

Systems Security - Module 13

Question: Which host-based security measure is used to restrict incoming and outgoing connections?

Options:

Rootkit
Host-based IPS
Host-based firewall
Antivirus/antimalware software

Systems Security - Module 13

Question: Which security service is provided by 802.1X?

Options:

Port-based network access control
Malware analysis and protection across the full attack continuum
Malware analysis of files
Protection against emerging threats for Cisco products

Systems Security - Module 13

Question: Why is it important to protect endpoints?

Options:

Endpoints are the starting point for VLAN attacks.
After an endpoint is breached, an attacker can gain access to other devices.
Endpoints are susceptible to STP manipulation attacks that can disrupt the rest of the LAN.
A breached endpoint gives a threat actor access to system configuration that can modify security policy.

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Which command sets a banner?

Options:

banner motd
motd banner
set banner
banner set

Systems Security - Module 13

Question: Which endpoint security measure prevents endpoints from connecting to websites that have a bad rating?

Options:

DLP
Denylisting
Spam filtering
Host-based IPS
Antimalware software

Systems Security - Module 13

Question: When would the authentication port-control command be used during an 802.1X implementation?

Options:

When a client has sent an EAPOL-logoff message
When the authentication server is located in the cloud
When an organization needs to control the port authorization state on a switch
When the authentication server is located at another location and cannot be reached

Systems Security - Module 13

Question: When using 802.1X authentication, what device controls physical access to the network, based on the authentication status of the client?

Options:

The switch that the client is connected to
The authentication server
The supplicant
The router that is serving as the default gateway

Systems Security - Module 13

Question: A port has been configured for the 802.1X protocol and the client has successfully authenticated. Which 802.1X state is associated with this PC?

Options:

Authorized
Enabled
Forwarding
Up

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: A _______ warns unauthorized users.

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Which command locks the console?

Options:

lock
console lock
secure console
lock con

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Match security features with commands:

Options:

Password
Timeout
Banner

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Explain how banners enhance security.

Systems Security - Module 4: Securing Device Access

Question: Which command secures AUX access?

Options:

line aux 0
aux secure
secure aux
aux line

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Which command assigns privilege level 15?

Options:

privilege 15
username admin privilege 15
level 15
admin 15

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: A _______ level defines user access.

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Match privilege levels with access:

Options:

1
5
15

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Explain how privilege levels secure devices.

Systems Security - Module 14

Question: What is the only type of traffic that is forwarded by a PVLAN protected port to other protected ports?

Options:

Control
Management
Broadcast
User

Systems Security - Module 14

Question: A network administrator is configuring DAI on a switch with the command ip arp inspection validate src-mac. What is the purpose of this configuration command?

Options:

It checks the source MAC address in the Ethernet header against the MAC address table.
It checks the source MAC address in the Ethernet header against the user-configured ARP ACLs.
It checks the source MAC address in the Ethernet header against the target MAC address in the ARP body.
It checks the source MAC address in the Ethernet header against the sender MAC address in the ARP body.

Systems Security - Module 14

Question: What mitigation plan is best for thwarting a DoS attack that is creating a MAC address table overflow?

Options:

Disable DTP.
Disable STP.
Enable port security.
Place unused ports in an unused VLAN.

Systems Security - Module 14

Question: What network attack seeks to create a DoS for clients by preventing them from being able to obtain a DHCP lease?

Options:

DHCP starvation
DHCP spoofing
IP address spoofing
CAM table attack

Systems Security - Module 14

Question: When security is a concern, which OSI Layer is considered to be the weakest link in a network system?

Options:

Layer 4
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 7

Systems Security - Module 14

Question: If two switches are configured with the same priority and the same extended system ID, what determines which switch becomes the root bridge?

Options:

The MAC address with the highest hexadecimal value
The highest BID
The lowest IP address
The Layer 2 address with the lowest hexadecimal value

Systems Security - Module 14

Question: Which statement describes the behavior of a switch when the MAC address table is full?

Options:

It treats frames as unknown unicast and floods all incoming frames to all ports on the switch.
It treats frames as unknown unicast and floods all incoming frames to all ports within the local VLAN.
It treats frames as unknown unicast and floods all incoming frames to all ports within the collision domain.
It treats frames as unknown unicast and floods all incoming frames to all ports across multiple switches.

Systems Security - Module 14

Question: A cybersecurity analyst is using the macof tool to evaluate configurations of switches deployed in the backbone network of an organization. Which type of LAN attack is the analyst targeting during this evaluation?

Options:

VLAN hopping
DHCP spoofing
VLAN double-tagging
MAC address table overflow

Systems Security - Module 14

Question: What determines which switch becomes the STP root bridge for a given VLAN?

Options:

The lowest bridge ID
The highest priority
The highest MAC address
The lowest IP address

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Which command creates a user?

Options:

username
user create
create user
add user

Systems Security - Module 14

Question: What action can a network administrator take to help mitigate the threat of VLAN hopping attacks?

Options:

Disable VTP.
Configure all switch ports to be members of VLAN 1.
Disable automatic trunking negotiation.
Enable PortFast on all switch ports.

Systems Security - Module 14

Question: Which two Cisco solutions help prevent DHCP starvation attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

Port Security
IP Source Guard
DHCP Snooping
Web Security Appliance
Dynamic ARP Inspection

Systems Security - Module 14

Question: What is the only type of port that an isolated port can forward traffic to on a private VLAN?

Options:

A promiscuous port
Another isolated port
Any access port in the same PVLAN
A community port

Systems Security - Module 14

Question: What additional security measure must be enabled along with IP Source Guard to protect against address spoofing?

Options:

DHCP snooping
BPDU Guard
Root guard
Port security

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: The _______ command sets a user password.

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Which command assigns level 5?

Options:

privilege 5
username user privilege 5
level 5
set level 5

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Match user roles with privileges:

Options:

Monitor
Operator
Admin

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Describe how role-based access works.

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Which command shows user privileges?

Options:

show privilege
show users
show priv
show run

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: A _______ user has full access.

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Which command sets a custom privilege?

Options:

privilege exec level
set priv
exec priv
level set

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Match commands with privilege settings:

Options:

username
privilege
secret

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Explain why encrypted passwords are used.

Systems Security - Module 15

Question: Refer to the exhibit. Which type of cipher method is depicted?

Options:

Caesar cipher
Stream cipher
Substitution cipher
Transposition cipher

Systems Security - Module 15

Question: What are two objectives of ensuring data integrity? (Choose two.)

Options:

Data is available all the time.
Data is unaltered during transit.
Access to the data is authenticated.
Data is not changed by unauthorized entities.
Data is encrypted while in transit and when stored on disks.

Systems Security - Module 15

Question: A network security specialist is tasked to implement a security measure that monitors the status of critical files in the data center and sends an immediate alert if any file is modified. Which aspect of secure communications is addressed by this security measure?

Options:

Data integrity
Nonrepudiation
Data confidentiality
Origin authentication

Systems Security - Module 15

Question: Which type of attack allows an attacker to use a brute force approach?

Options:

Social engineering
Packet sniffing
Denial of service
Password cracking

Systems Security - Module 15

Question: Why would HMAC be used to help secure the data as it travels across various links?

Options:

It is an asymmetric encryption algorithm used when the two communicating parties have not previously shared a secret key.
It is a hashing algorithm used to guarantee that the message is not a forgery and actually comes from the authentic source.
It is a hashing algorithm used to encrypt the message and guarantee that no one intercepted the message and altered it.
It is a popular symmetric encryption algorithm used when each communicating party needs to know the pre-shared key.

Systems Security - Module 15

Question: What is the focus of cryptanalysis?

Options:

Hiding secret codes
Developing secret codes
Breaking encrypted codes
Implementing encrypted codes

Systems Security - Module 15

Question: What is cryptology?

Options:

The science of guaranteeing that a message is not a forgery and comes from the authentic source
The science of creating transposition and substitution ciphers
The science of cracking the code without access to the shared secret key
The science of making and breaking secret codes

Systems Security - Module 15

Question: Which objective of secure communications is achieved by encrypting data?

Options:

Authentication
Availability
Confidentiality
Integrity

Systems Security - Module 15

Question: What is the purpose of a nonrepudiation service in secure communications?

Options:

To provide the highest encryption level possible
To ensure that the source of the communications is confirmed
To confirm the identity of the recipient of the communications
To ensure that encrypted secure communications cannot be decoded

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Which command encrypts a password?

Options:

secret
encrypt
password encrypt
secure

Systems Security - Module 15

Question: What is an example of the transposition cipher?

Options:

RC4
Rail fence
Caesar
Vigenère

Systems Security - Module 15

Question: A web server administrator is configuring access settings to require users to authenticate first before accessing certain web pages. Which requirement of information security is addressed through the configuration?

Options:

Integrity
Scalability
Availability
Confidentiality

Systems Security - Module 15

Question: As data is being stored on a local hard disk, which method would secure the data from unauthorized access?

Options:

Data encryption
A duplicate hard drive copy
Deletion of sensitive files
Two factor authentication

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: A _______ level limits config access.

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Which command restricts show commands?

Options:

privilege exec level 5 show
show restrict
restrict show
level show

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Match access types with levels:

Options:

Basic
Config
Full

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Describe how to assign a user role.

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Which command lists users?

Options:

show users
list users
users show
show run

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: A _______ user can configure devices.

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Which command sets level 1 access?

Options:

privilege 1
username user privilege 1
level 1
set 1

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Match privilege settings with effects:

Options:

1
5
15

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Explain how to limit user access.

Systems Security - Module 5: Assigning Administrative Roles

Question: Which command removes a user?

Options:

no username
delete user
remove user
user delete

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Which protocol monitors network devices?

Options:

SNMP
SMTP
FTP
HTTP

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: The _______ command enables SNMP.

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Match monitoring tools with purposes:

Options:

SNMP
Syslog
NetFlow

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Explain the role of SNMP in security.

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Which command sets an SNMP community?

Options:

snmp-server community public
snmp community public
community public snmp
snmp public

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: A _______ logs device events.

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Which command enables Syslog?

Options:

logging on
syslog enable
enable syslog
log start

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Match protocols with monitoring roles:

Options:

SNMP
Syslog
NetFlow

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Describe how Syslog enhances security.

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Which command sets a Syslog server?

Options:

logging host
syslog host
host syslog
set syslog

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: A _______ analyzes traffic flows.

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Which command enables NetFlow?

Options:

ip flow-export
netflow enable
enable netflow
flow export

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Match monitoring levels with tools:

Options:

Device
Event
Traffic

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Explain how NetFlow aids security.

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Which command shows SNMP status?

Options:

show snmp
snmp status
status snmp
show run

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: A _______ server collects logs.

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Which command sets SNMP traps?

Options:

snmp-server host
trap host
host snmp
set trap

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Match monitoring commands with outputs:

Options:

show snmp
show logging
show ip flow

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Describe how traps enhance monitoring.

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Which command shows log events?

Options:

show logging
log show
show logs
logging show

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: A _______ protocol polls devices.

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Which command exports NetFlow data?

Options:

ip flow-export
export flow
flow-export
netflow export

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Match monitoring tools with data types:

Options:

SNMP
Syslog
NetFlow

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Explain how monitoring improves security.

Systems Security - Module 6: Device Monitoring and Management

Question: Which command disables SNMP?

Options:

no snmp-server
snmp off
disable snmp
snmp disable

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Which protocol is used for AAA?

Options:

RADIUS
HTTP
FTP
SNMP

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: A _______ verifies user identity.

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Match AAA components with roles:

Options:

Authentication
Authorization
Accounting

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Explain how AAA enhances security.

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Which command enables AAA?

Options:

aaa new-model
enable aaa
aaa on
set aaa

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: The _______ command sets a RADIUS server.

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Which protocol uses TCP port 1812?

Options:

RADIUS
TACACS+
SNMP
LDAP

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Match AAA protocols with features:

Options:

RADIUS
TACACS+
LDAP

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Describe how RADIUS secures access.

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Which command sets a AAA method?

Options:

aaa authentication
set aaa
auth method
aaa method

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: A _______ tracks user actions.

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Which command enables accounting?

Options:

aaa accounting
accounting on
enable accounting
set accounting

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Match AAA functions with commands:

Options:

Auth
Authz
Acct

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Explain how TACACS+ differs from RADIUS.

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Which protocol encrypts all AAA?

Options:

RADIUS
TACACS+
LDAP
SNMP

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: A _______ server centralizes AAA.

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Which command sets a TACACS+ server?

Options:

tacacs-server host
tacacs host
host tacacs
set tacacs

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Match server types with protocols:

Options:

RADIUS
TACACS+
Local

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Describe how accounting improves security.

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Which command shows AAA status?

Options:

show aaa
aaa status
show run
status aaa

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: A _______ method uses local auth.

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Which command sets local fallback?

Options:

aaa authentication login default local
local auth
auth local
set local

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Match AAA methods with priorities:

Options:

RADIUS
TACACS+
Local

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Explain how fallback enhances AAA.

Systems Security - Module 7: Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Question: Which command disables AAA?

Options:

no aaa new-model
aaa off
disable aaa
aaa disable

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Which command applies an ACL to an interface?

Options:

ip access-group
access-list apply
interface acl
apply acl

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: A _______ filters network traffic.

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Match ACL types with uses:

Options:

Standard
Extended
Named

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Explain how ACLs enhance security.

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Which command creates a standard ACL?

Options:

access-list 1
standard acl
acl 1
set acl 1

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: The _______ keyword denies traffic.

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Which command permits HTTP traffic?

Options:

permit tcp any any eq 80
allow http
http permit
permit http

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Match ACL actions with keywords:

Options:

Permit
Deny
Log

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Describe how extended ACLs differ from standard.

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Which command creates an extended ACL?

Options:

access-list 100
extended acl
acl 100
set acl 100

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: A _______ ACL uses names.

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Which command creates a named ACL?

Options:

ip access-list
named acl
acl named
set named

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Match ACL numbers with types:

Options:

1-99
100-199
Named

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Explain why ACL placement matters.

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Which command shows ACLs?

Options:

show access-lists
show acl
acl show
list acl

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: A _______ rule allows traffic.

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Which command denies ICMP?

Options:

deny icmp any any
block icmp
icmp deny
no icmp

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Match ACL directions with effects:

Options:

In
Out
Both

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Describe how logging improves ACLs.

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Which command adds logging?

Options:

log
enable log
log acl
set log

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: A _______ ACL filters by port.

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Which command permits SSH?

Options:

permit tcp any any eq 22
allow ssh
ssh permit
permit ssh

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Match ACL keywords with meanings:

Options:

any
eq
host

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Explain ACL implicit deny.

Systems Security - Module 8: Access Control Lists

Question: Which command removes an ACL?

Options:

no access-list
delete acl
remove acl
acl delete

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Which firewall type examines packet headers only?

Options:

Packet-filtering
Stateful
Proxy
Next-Generation

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: A _______ firewall tracks connection states.

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Match firewall types with features:

Options:

Packet
Stateful
Proxy

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Explain how stateful firewalls improve security.

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Which firewall acts as an intermediary?

Options:

Packet-filtering
Stateful
Proxy
Next-Generation

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: A _______ firewall uses deep packet inspection.

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Which firewall blocks based on apps?

Options:

Packet-filtering
Stateful
Proxy
Next-Generation

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Match firewall capabilities with types:

Options:

Filtering
State
App Control

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Describe how proxy firewalls work.

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Which command sets a firewall rule?

Options:

access-list
firewall rule
rule set
set firewall

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: A _______ firewall is basic.

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Which firewall uses connection tables?

Options:

Packet-filtering
Stateful
Proxy
Next-Generation

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Match firewall types with layers:

Options:

Packet
Stateful
Proxy

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Explain how NGFWs differ from others.

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Which firewall logs app usage?

Options:

Packet-filtering
Stateful
Proxy
Next-Generation

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: A _______ firewall hides client identity.

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Which command shows firewall rules?

Options:

show access-lists
show firewall
firewall show
list rules

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Match firewall features with benefits:

Options:

State
App Control
Proxy

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Describe how packet-filtering works.

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Which firewall is fastest?

Options:

Packet-filtering
Stateful
Proxy
Next-Generation

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: A _______ firewall requires more resources.

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Which firewall supports IPS?

Options:

Packet-filtering
Stateful
Proxy
Next-Generation

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Match firewall types with complexity:

Options:

Packet
Stateful
NGFW

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Explain why stateful firewalls are preferred.

Systems Security - Module 9: Firewall Technologies

Question: Which command clears firewall logs?

Options:

clear logging
log clear
clear logs
reset log

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Which command defines a security zone?

Options:

zone security
security zone
zone define
define zone

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: A _______ groups interfaces.

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Match ZBPF components with roles:

Options:

Zone
Class-Map
Policy-Map

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Explain how ZBPF enhances security.

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Which command assigns an interface to a zone?

Options:

zone-member security
member zone
zone assign
set zone

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: The _______ command matches traffic.

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Which command creates a class-map?

Options:

class-map
map class
create class
set class

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Match ZBPF actions with commands:

Options:

Inspect
Drop
Pass

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Describe how zones segment networks.

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Which command sets a policy-map?

Options:

policy-map
map policy
set policy
policy set

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: A _______ defines traffic actions.

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Which command applies a ZBPF policy?

Options:

zone-pair security
apply zone
zone apply
set zone-pair

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Match ZBPF terms with definitions:

Options:

Zone-Pair
Class
Policy

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Explain how ZBPF differs from ACLs.

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Which command shows ZBPF status?

Options:

show zone security
zone status
show zones
status zone

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: A _______ pair defines traffic direction.

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Which command inspects traffic?

Options:

inspect
check traffic
traffic inspect
set inspect

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Match ZBPF policies with actions:

Options:

Inspect
Drop
Pass

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Describe how ZBPF handles state.

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Which command drops traffic?

Options:

drop
block
deny
stop

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: A _______ map classifies traffic.

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Which command passes traffic?

Options:

pass
allow
permit
pass-through

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Match ZBPF elements with config:

Options:

Zone
Class
Policy

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Explain why ZBPF is stateful.

Systems Security - Module 10: Zone-Based Policy Firewalls

Question: Which command removes a zone?

Options:

no zone security
delete zone
remove zone
zone delete

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: IPS stands for _______ Prevention System.

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Which command enables IPS?

Options:

ip ips name
ips enable
enable ips
set ips

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Match IPS features with roles:

Options:

Detection
Prevention
Logging

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Explain how IPS enhances security.

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Which tool is IPS?

Options:

IDS
IPS
Firewall
NAT

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: A _______ signature detects threats.

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Which command applies IPS to an interface?

Options:

ip ips in
ips apply
apply ips
set ips in

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Match IPS actions with effects:

Options:

Alert
Block
Reset

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Describe how IPS differs from IDS.

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Which command sets an IPS signature?

Options:

ip ips signature
signature set
set signature
ips sig

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: A _______ IPS monitors inline.

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Which IPS mode blocks traffic?

Options:

Promiscuous
Inline
Passive
Monitor

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Match IPS modes with operations:

Options:

Promiscuous
Inline
Hybrid

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Explain how inline IPS works.

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Which command shows IPS status?

Options:

show ip ips
ips status
show ips
status ips

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: A _______ detects attack patterns.

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Which IPS uses anomaly detection?

Options:

Signature-based
Anomaly-based
Rule-based
Policy-based

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Match IPS types with methods:

Options:

Signature
Anomaly
Hybrid

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Describe how anomaly-based IPS works.

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Which command updates IPS signatures?

Options:

ip ips update
update ips
signature update
ips update

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: A _______ IPS reduces false positives.

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Which IPS integrates with firewalls?

Options:

Standalone
Integrated
Passive
Active

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Match IPS deployment with benefits:

Options:

Inline
Promiscuous
Hybrid

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Explain how IPS logs improve security.

Systems Security - Module 11: IPS Technologies

Question: Which command disables IPS?

Options:

no ip ips
ips off
disable ips
ips disable

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Which command applies an IPS rule?

Options:

ip ips name
ips apply
ip ips in
ips rule

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: A _______ enforces IPS policies.

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Match IPS config steps with commands:

Options:

Enable
Define
Apply

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Explain how IPS rules are implemented.

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Which command sets IPS direction?

Options:

ip ips in
ips direction
direction ips
set ips dir

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: The _______ command names an IPS policy.

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Which IPS action resets connections?

Options:

Alert
Block
Reset
Drop

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Match IPS actions with config:

Options:

Drop
Reset
Alert

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Describe how IPS resets connections.

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Which command logs IPS events?

Options:

ip ips log
log ips
ips log
logging

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: A _______ defines IPS behavior.

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Which command sets a custom IPS action?

Options:

ip ips signature
set ips action
ips custom
action ips

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Match IPS setup with steps:

Options:

Name
Signature
Interface

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Explain why IPS placement matters.

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Which command shows IPS events?

Options:

show ip ips events
ips events
show events
event log

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: A _______ triggers IPS actions.

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Which IPS blocks specific threats?

Options:

Signature-based
Anomaly-based
Rule-based
General

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Match IPS enforcement with types:

Options:

Signature
Anomaly
Policy

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Describe how IPS integrates with networks.

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Which command tests IPS?

Options:

test ips
ips test
ip ips test
show ip ips

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: A _______ IPS uses predefined rules.

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Which command removes IPS?

Options:

no ip ips
ips remove
remove ips
unset ips

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Match IPS terms with definitions:

Options:

Signature
Policy
Event

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Explain how IPS reduces false positives.

Systems Security - Module 12: IPS Operation and Implementation

Question: Which command updates IPS policies?

Options:

ip ips update
update ips
policy update
ips policy

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Which command enables port security?

Options:

port-security
switchport port-security
security port
enable port-security

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: A _______ limits MAC addresses.

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Match port security features with roles:

Options:

MAC Limit
Violation
Aging

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Explain how port security protects endpoints.

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Which command sets a MAC limit?

Options:

switchport port-security maximum
mac limit
limit mac
set mac

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: The _______ action shuts down a port.

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Which violation mode blocks access?

Options:

Protect
Restrict
Shutdown
Alert

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Match violation modes with actions:

Options:

Protect
Restrict
Shutdown

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Describe how shutdown mode works.

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Which command sets a violation action?

Options:

switchport port-security violation
violation set
set violation
port violation

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: A _______ MAC is manually set.

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Which command adds a static MAC?

Options:

switchport port-security mac-address
mac static
static mac
set mac static

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Match MAC types with config:

Options:

Static
Dynamic
Sticky

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Explain how sticky MACs work.

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Which command enables sticky MAC?

Options:

switchport port-security mac-address sticky
sticky mac
mac sticky
set sticky

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: A _______ removes old MACs.

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Which command sets MAC aging?

Options:

switchport port-security aging
mac age
age mac
set aging

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Match aging types with effects:

Options:

Absolute
Inactivity
None

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Describe how aging enhances security.

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Which command shows port security?

Options:

show port-security
port show
show ports
security show

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: A _______ port limits device access.

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Which command restricts to one MAC?

Options:

switchport port-security maximum 1
mac 1
limit 1
set mac 1

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Match security settings with commands:

Options:

Limit
Action
MAC

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Explain why port security is critical.

Systems Security - Module 13: Endpoint Security

Question: Which command disables port security?

Options:

no switchport port-security
port off
disable port
unset security

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Which attack exploits ARP?

Options:

ARP Spoofing
DDoS
Phishing
SQL Injection

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: A _______ poisons the ARP table.

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Match Layer 2 threats with descriptions:

Options:

ARP Spoofing
MAC Flooding
VLAN Hopping

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Explain how ARP spoofing works.

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Which command mitigates ARP spoofing?

Options:

arp inspection
ip arp inspection
arp protect
set arp

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: The _______ attack floods MAC tables.

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Which command limits MAC flooding?

Options:

switchport port-security maximum
mac limit
limit mac
flood control

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Match mitigation tools with Layer 2 threats:

Options:

DAI
Port Security
VLAN ACL

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Describe how MAC flooding impacts switches.

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Which attack crosses VLANs?

Options:

ARP Spoofing
MAC Flooding
VLAN Hopping
DDoS

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: A _______ prevents VLAN hopping.

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Which command sets a VLAN ACL?

Options:

vlan access-map
acl vlan
set vlan acl
vlan acl

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Match Layer 2 defenses with commands:

Options:

DAI
Port Security
VACL

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Explain how DAI mitigates ARP spoofing.

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Which command enables DAI?

Options:

ip arp inspection
arp inspect
inspect arp
set arp inspection

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: A _______ attack disrupts Layer 2.

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Which command shows ARP inspection?

Options:

show ip arp inspection
arp show
show arp
inspect show

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Match Layer 2 attacks with impacts:

Options:

ARP
MAC
VLAN

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Describe how VLAN hopping works.

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Which command prevents VLAN hopping?

Options:

switchport mode access
vlan block
block vlan
set vlan

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: A _______ validates ARP packets.

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Which command secures trunk ports?

Options:

switchport mode trunk
trunk secure
secure trunk
set trunk

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Match Layer 2 security with tools:

Options:

ARP
MAC
VLAN

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Explain why Layer 2 security is critical.

Systems Security - Module 14: Layer 2 Security Considerations

Question: Which command disables DAI?

Options:

no ip arp inspection
arp off
disable arp
unset arp

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Which command generates RSA keys?

Options:

crypto key generate rsa
rsa generate
key rsa
generate rsa

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: A _______ secures data transmission.

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Match crypto methods with uses:

Options:

Symmetric
Asymmetric
Hash

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Explain how RSA enhances security.

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Which protocol uses RSA?

Options:

SSH
HTTP
FTP
SNMP

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: The _______ algorithm is symmetric.

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Which encryption is fastest?

Options:

AES
RSA
DES
SHA

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Match encryption types with keys:

Options:

Symmetric
Asymmetric
Hash

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Describe how AES secures data.

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Which command sets an AES key?

Options:

crypto key aes
aes key
key aes
crypto key generate

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: A _______ ensures data integrity.

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Which hash algorithm is secure?

Options:

MD5
SHA-1
SHA-256
CRC

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Match hash uses with algorithms:

Options:

Integrity
Authentication
Password

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Explain how hashing improves security.

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Which command enables encryption?

Options:

crypto key generate
encrypt on
enable crypto
set encrypt

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: A _______ key encrypts SSH.

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Which protocol uses AES?

Options:

IPsec
HTTP
FTP
SNMP

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Match crypto protocols with uses:

Options:

IPsec
SSL/TLS
SSH

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Describe how IPsec secures data.

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Which command shows crypto keys?

Options:

show crypto key
crypto show
show keys
key show

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: A _______ verifies data origin.

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Which algorithm signs data?

Options:

RSA
AES
DES
SHA

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Match crypto terms with roles:

Options:

Key
Cipher
Hash

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Explain how digital signatures work.

Systems Security - Module 15: Cryptographic Services

Question: Which command removes crypto keys?

Options:

no crypto key
key remove
remove key
unset crypto

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: HMAC uses _______ for integrity.

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: Which command enables HMAC?

Options:

hmac enable
crypto hmac
enable hmac
set hmac

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: Match integrity tools with roles:

Options:

Hash
HMAC
Checksum

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: Explain how HMAC ensures authenticity.

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: Which hash is used in HMAC?

Options:

MD5
SHA-1
SHA-256
CRC

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: A _______ verifies data wasn’t altered.

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: Which protocol uses HMAC?

Options:

IPsec
HTTP
FTP
SNMP

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: Match authenticity methods with uses:

Options:

Hash
HMAC
Signature

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: Describe how hashes detect tampering.

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: Which command sets a hash key?

Options:

crypto key
hash key
key hash
set hash

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: A _______ ensures data source.

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: Which hash is outdated?

Options:

MD5
SHA-256
SHA-3
BLAKE2

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: Match hash types with security:

Options:

MD5
SHA-1
SHA-256

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: Explain why MD5 is weak.

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: Which command shows hash status?

Options:

show crypto
crypto status
show hash
hash status

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: A _______ hash uses a key.

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: Which protocol uses SHA-256?

Options:

SSL/TLS
HTTP
FTP
SNMP

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: Match integrity tools with outputs:

Options:

Hash
HMAC
Checksum

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: Describe how checksums differ from hashes.

Systems Security - Module 16: Basic Integrity and Authenticity

Question: Which command disables HMAC?

Options:

no crypto hmac
hmac off
disable hmac
unset hmac

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Which key pair includes public and private keys?

Options:

RSA
DES
AES
MD5

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: A _______ key is shared.

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Match key types with roles:

Options:

Public
Private
Symmetric

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Explain how public key cryptography works.

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Which command generates RSA keys?

Options:

crypto key generate rsa
rsa key
generate rsa
key rsa

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: The _______ key is kept secret.

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Which protocol uses public keys?

Options:

SSH
HTTP
FTP
SNMP

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Match crypto uses with keys:

Options:

Encryption
Signature
Exchange

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Describe how RSA secures SSH.

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Which command shows key pairs?

Options:

show crypto key
key show
show keys
crypto show

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: A _______ signs data.

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Which algorithm is asymmetric?

Options:

AES
RSA
DES
SHA

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Match key roles with protocols:

Options:

SSH
SSL/TLS
IPsec

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Explain how public keys are shared.

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Which command removes RSA keys?

Options:

no crypto key
remove key
key remove
unset rsa

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: A _______ verifies signatures.

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Which protocol uses certificates?

Options:

SSL/TLS
HTTP
FTP
SNMP

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Match crypto terms with functions:

Options:

Public
Private
Cert

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Describe how certificates enhance security.

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Which command imports a certificate?

Options:

crypto pki import
import cert
cert import
set cert

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: A _______ authority issues certificates.

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Which command shows certificates?

Options:

show crypto pki
cert show
show certs
pki show

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Match cert roles with entities:

Options:

CA
User
Server

Systems Security - Module 17: Public Key Cryptography

Question: Explain how CAs ensure trust.

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Which protocol secures VPN traffic?

Options:

IPsec
HTTP
FTP
SNMP

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: A _______ creates a secure tunnel.

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Match VPN types with uses:

Options:

Site-to-Site
Remote Access
Clientless

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Explain how VPNs enhance security.

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Which command enables IPsec?

Options:

crypto ipsec
ipsec enable
enable ipsec
set ipsec

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: The _______ protocol encrypts VPN data.

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Which VPN uses SSL?

Options:

Site-to-Site
Remote Access
Clientless SSL
IPsec

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Match VPN protocols with features:

Options:

IPsec
SSL
PPTP

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Describe how IPsec secures VPNs.

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Which command sets an IPsec transform?

Options:

crypto ipsec transform-set
transform ipsec
set transform
ipsec transform

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: A _______ defines VPN endpoints.

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Which command creates a VPN tunnel?

Options:

crypto map
tunnel create
create tunnel
set tunnel

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Match VPN components with roles:

Options:

Tunnel
Transform
Crypto Map

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Explain how SSL VPNs differ from IPsec.

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Which command applies a crypto map?

Options:

crypto map interface
apply crypto
interface crypto
set crypto

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: A _______ key encrypts VPN traffic.

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Which protocol uses IKE?

Options:

IPsec
SSL
PPTP
L2TP

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Match VPN security with protocols:

Options:

IPsec
SSL
L2TP

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Describe how IKE secures VPNs.

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Which command shows VPN status?

Options:

show crypto ipsec
vpn status
show vpn
status vpn

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: A _______ VPN connects sites.

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Which command sets IKE policy?

Options:

crypto isakmp policy
ike policy
policy ike
set ike

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Match VPN types with access:

Options:

Site
Remote
Clientless

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Explain why VPNs use encryption.

Systems Security - Module 18: VPNs

Question: Which command removes a VPN?

Options:

no crypto map
remove vpn
vpn delete
unset vpn

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Which command sets an IPsec transform set?

Options:

crypto ipsec transform-set
ipsec transform
transform-set ipsec
set transform

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: A _______ links two networks.

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Match VPN config steps with commands:

Options:

Transform
Crypto Map
Interface

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Explain how Site-to-Site VPNs work.

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Which command defines IKE policy?

Options:

crypto isakmp policy
ike policy
policy ike
set ike

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: The _______ command applies a crypto map.

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Which protocol negotiates VPN keys?

Options:

IKE
SSL
PPTP
L2TP

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Match IPsec components with roles:

Options:

IKE
Transform
Crypto Map

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Describe how IKE sets up IPsec.

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Which command shows IPsec SA?

Options:

show crypto ipsec sa
sa show
show sa
ipsec sa

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: A _______ defines encryption settings.

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Which command sets a peer IP?

Options:

crypto map set peer
peer set
set peer
ip peer

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Match VPN setup with commands:

Options:

Policy
Peer
Map

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Explain why peers are defined.

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Which command enables NAT-T?

Options:

crypto isakmp nat-traversal
nat-t enable
enable nat-t
set nat-t

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: A _______ traverses NAT.

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Which command logs IPsec?

Options:

debug crypto ipsec
log ipsec
ipsec log
show log

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Match IPsec features with benefits:

Options:

Encryption
Auth
NAT-T

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Describe how NAT-T aids VPNs.

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Which command clears IPsec SA?

Options:

clear crypto sa
sa clear
clear sa
reset sa

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: A _______ secures site links.

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Which command sets a VPN ACL?

Options:

crypto map match address
acl set
set acl
match acl

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Match VPN terms with config:

Options:

SA
Peer
ACL

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Explain how ACLs define VPN traffic.

Systems Security - Module 19: Implement Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs

Question: Which command disables IPsec?

Options:

no crypto ipsec
ipsec off
disable ipsec
unset ipsec

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: ASA stands for _______ Security Appliance.

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Which command enters ASA config mode?

Options:

configure terminal
config t
conf t
All of these

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Match ASA features with roles:

Options:

Firewall
VPN
IPS

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Explain how ASA enhances security.

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Which ASA mode is default?

Options:

Routed
Transparent
Multi-context
Single

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: The _______ command sets ASA mode.

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Which ASA supports multiple VLANs?

Options:

Routed
Transparent
Multi-context
Single

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Match ASA modes with functions:

Options:

Routed
Transparent
Multi

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Describe how transparent mode works.

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Which command shows ASA mode?

Options:

show mode
mode show
show running-config
status mode

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: A _______ ASA acts as a router.

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Which command enables multi-context?

Options:

mode multiple
multi mode
set multi
context multi

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Match ASA components with uses:

Options:

Firewall
VPN
Contexts

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Explain how multi-context works.

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Which command sets an ASA name?

Options:

hostname
name set
set name
asa name

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: A _______ separates ASA contexts.

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Which command enters context mode?

Options:

changeto context
context change
mode context
set context

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Match ASA terms with definitions:

Options:

Context
Mode
Interface

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Describe how ASA differs from IOS.

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Which command shows ASA interfaces?

Options:

show interface
interface show
show int
int status

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: A _______ ASA filters traffic.

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Which command sets ASA IP?

Options:

ip address
set ip
address ip
configure ip

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Match ASA setup with commands:

Options:

Name
Mode
IP

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Explain why ASA uses contexts.

Systems Security - Module 20: Introduction to the ASA

Question: Which command disables multi-context?

Options:

no mode multiple
mode single
disable multi
unset multi

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Which command sets an ASA interface IP?

Options:

ip address
interface ip
set ip
config ip

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: A _______ defines ASA zones.

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Match ASA config with commands:

Options:

Interface
ACL
NAT

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Explain how ASA interfaces secure traffic.

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Which command creates an ACL?

Options:

access-list
acl create
create acl
set acl

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: The _______ command applies an ACL.

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Which command permits traffic?

Options:

permit
allow
access permit
set permit

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Match ACL actions with effects:

Options:

Permit
Deny
Log

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Describe how ACLs work on ASA.

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Which command sets NAT?

Options:

nat
set nat
nat config
configure nat

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: A _______ hides internal IPs.

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Which command enables NAT?

Options:

nat enable
nat
enable nat
set nat enable

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Match NAT types with uses:

Options:

Dynamic
Static
PAT

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Explain how PAT works on ASA.

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Which command shows NAT rules?

Options:

show nat
nat show
show run nat
list nat

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: A _______ level sets interface security.

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Which command sets a security level?

Options:

security-level
level set
set security
config level

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Match security levels with access:

Options:

0
50
100

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Describe how security levels work.

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Which command shows ASA config?

Options:

show running-config
config show
show config
run show

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: A _______ denies traffic by default.

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Which command allows ICMP?

Options:

permit icmp
icmp permit
access-list permit icmp
set icmp

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Match ASA settings with commands:

Options:

IP
ACL
Level

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Explain why ASA uses NAT.

Systems Security - Module 21: ASA Firewall Configuration

Question: Which command removes an ACL?

Options:

no access-list
delete acl
remove acl
unset acl

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Which tool tests network vulnerabilities?

Options:

Wireshark
Nmap
Ping
Traceroute

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: A _______ scans for open ports.

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Match testing tools with uses:

Options:

Nmap
Wireshark
Nessus

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Explain how Nmap improves security.

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Which tool captures packets?

Options:

Nmap
Wireshark
Nessus
Metasploit

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: The _______ tool tests exploits.

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Which tool scans for weaknesses?

Options:

Nessus
Wireshark
Nmap
Ping

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Match test types with tools:

Options:

Port
Packet
Vuln

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Describe how Wireshark aids testing.

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Which command runs Nmap?

Options:

nmap
scan nmap
run nmap
nmap scan

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: A _______ tests penetration.

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Which tool exploits vulnerabilities?

Options:

Metasploit
Wireshark
Nmap
Nessus

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Match security tests with goals:

Options:

Scan
Capture
Exploit

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Explain how Nessus improves security.

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Which command runs Wireshark?

Options:

wireshark
capture wire
wire shark
run wireshark

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: A _______ maps network devices.

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Which tool tests firewall rules?

Options:

Nmap
Wireshark
Nessus
Metasploit

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Match testing phases with tools:

Options:

Recon
Analysis
Attack

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Describe how Metasploit tests security.

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Which command runs Nessus?

Options:

nessus
scan nessus
run nessus
nessus scan

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: A _______ captures live traffic.

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Which tool tests OS vulnerabilities?

Options:

Nessus
Wireshark
Nmap
Metasploit

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Match test outputs with tools:

Options:

Ports
Packets
Exploits

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Explain why testing is critical.

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Which command stops Wireshark?

Options:

stop
exit
quit
close

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: A _______ scans for services.

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Which tool tests network latency?

Options:

Ping
Wireshark
Nmap
Nessus

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Match testing tools with commands:

Options:

Nmap
Wireshark
Ping

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Describe how ping tests connectivity.

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Which command runs Metasploit?

Options:

msfconsole
metasploit
run msf
msf run

Systems Security - Module 22: Network Security Testing

Question: Which command enables logging for security testing?

Options:

logging enable
log on
enable log
logging start

Systems Security - Module 5

Question: What must be done before any role-based CLI views can be created?

Options:

Issue the aaa new-model command
Assign multiple privilege levels
Create the secret password for the root user
Configure usernames and passwords

Systems Security - Module 5

Question: Which three statements describe limitations in using privilege levels for assigning command authorization? (Choose three.)

Options:

There is no access control to specific interfaces on a router.
The root user must be assigned to each privilege level that is defined.
Commands set on a higher privilege level are not available for lower privilege users.
Views are required to define the CLI commands that each user can access.
Creating a user account that needs access to most but not all commands can be a tedious process.
It is required that all 16 privilege levels be defined, whether they are used or not.

Systems Security - Module 5

Question: Which two router commands can a user issue when granted privilege level 0? (Choose two.)

Options:

help
ping
configure
disable
show

Systems Security - Module 5

Question: What does level 5 in the following enable secret global configuration mode command indicate? Router(config)# enable secret level 5 csc5io

Options:

The enable secret password is hashed using MD5.
The enable secret password is hashed using SHA.
The enable secret password grants access to privileged EXEC level 5.
The enable secret password can only be set by individuals with privileges for EXEC level 5.

Systems Security - Module 5

Question: What are three network enhancements achieved by implementing the Cisco IOS software role-based CLI access feature? (Choose three.)

Options:

Security
Scalability
Availability
Cost reduction
Fault tolerance
Operational efficiency

Systems Security - Module 5

Question: A network administrator wants to create a new view so that a user only has access to certain configuration commands. In role-based CLI, which view should the administrator use to create the new view?

Options:

Root view
CLI view
Superview
Admin view

Systems Security - Module 5

Question: A network administrator enters the command R1# enable view adminview. What is the purpose of this command?

Options:

To enter the root view
To enter a CLI view named adminview
To enter a superview named adminview
To create a CLI view named adminview

Systems Security - Module 5

Question: Which range of custom privilege levels can be configured on Cisco routers?

Options:

1 through 15
1 through 16
2 through 14
2 through 15
0 through 15

Systems Security - Module 5

Question: Which command will move the show interface command to privilege level 10?

Options:

Router(config)# privilege level 10 show interface
Router(config)# show interface level 10
Router(config)# privilege exec level 10 show interface
Router(config-if)# privilege level 10 show interface
Router(config-if)# show interface level 10
Router(config-if)# privilege exec level 10 show interface

Systems Security - Module 5

Question: What is the default privilege level of user accounts created on Cisco routers?

Options:

0
1
15
16

Systems Security - Module 5

Question: An administrator assigned a level of router access to the user ADMIN using the commands below. Router(config)# privilege exec level 14 show ip route Router(config)# enable algorithm-type scrypt secret level 14 cisco-level-10 Router(config)# username ADMIN privilege 14 algorithm-type scrypt secret cisco-level-10 Which two actions are permitted to the user ADMIN? (Choose two.)

Options:

The user can execute all subcommands under the show ip interfaces command.
The user can issue the ip route command.
The user can issue all commands because this privilege level can execute all Cisco IOS commands.
The user can issue the show version command.
The user can only execute the subcommands under the show ip route command.

Systems Security - Module 8

Question: In applying an ACL to a router interface, which traffic is designated as outbound?

Options:

Traffic that is coming from the source IP address into the router
Traffic that is leaving the router and going toward the destination host
Traffic that is going from the destination IP address into the router
Traffic for which the router can find no routing table entry

Systems Security - Module 8

Question: What is the quickest way to remove a single ACE from a named ACL?

Options:

Use the no keyword and the sequence number of the ACE to be removed.
Use the no access-list command to remove the entire ACL, then recreate it without the ACE.
Copy the ACL into a text editor, remove the ACE, then copy the ACL back into the router.
Create a new ACL with a different number and apply the new ACL to the router interface.

Systems Security - Module 8

Question: Which ICMP message type should be stopped inbound?

Options:

Echo
Echo-reply
Unreachable
Source quench

Systems Security - Module 8

Question: Which scenario would cause an ACL misconfiguration and deny all traffic?

Options:

Apply a standard ACL in the inbound direction.
Apply a named ACL to a VTY line.
Apply an ACL that has all deny ACE statements.
Apply a standard ACL using the ip access-group out command.

Systems Security - Module 8

Question: Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an IPv6 ACL to allow hosts on the 2001:DB8:CAFE:10::/64 network to access remote web servers, except for PC1. However, a user on PC1 can successfully access the web server PC2. Why is this possible?

Options:

The IPv6 ACL Deny_WEB is spelled incorrectly when applied to the interface.
The IPv6 ACL Deny_WEB is applied to the wrong interface of router R1.
The IPv6 ACL Deny_WEB is applied in the incorrect direction on router R1.
The IPv6 ACL Deny_WEB is permitting all web traffic before the specific host is blocked.

Systems Security - Module 8

Question: Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to create a standard ACL to prevent Network 1 traffic from being transmitted to the Research and Development network. On which router interface and in which direction should the standard ACL be applied?

Options:

R1 Gi0/0 inbound
R1 Gi0/0 outbound
R1 S0/0/0 outbound
R2 S0/0/0 inbound
R2 Gi0/0 outbound
R2 Gi0/0 inbound

Systems Security - Module 8

Question: Which two statements describe appropriate general guidelines for configuring and applying ACLs? (Choose two.)

Options:

Multiple ACLs per protocol and per direction can be applied to an interface.
If an ACL contains no permit statements, all traffic is denied by default.
The most specific ACL statements should be entered first because of the top-down sequential nature of ACLs.
Standard ACLs are placed closest to the source, whereas extended ACLs are placed closest to the destination.
If a single ACL is to be applied to multiple interfaces, it must be configured with a unique number for each interface.

Systems Security - Module 8

Question: Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the function of the ACEs?

Options:

These ACEs allow for IPv6 neighbor discovery traffic.
These ACEs must be manually added to the end of every IPv6 ACL to allow IPv6 routing to occur.
These ACEs automatically appear at the end of every IPv6 ACL to allow IPv6 routing to occur.
These are optional ACEs that can be added to the end of an IPv6 ACL to allow ICMP messages that are defined in object groups named nd-na and nd-ns.

Systems Security - Module 8

Question: What wild card mask will match networks 172.16.0.0 through 172.19.0.0?

Options:

0.0.3.255
0.0.255.255
0.252.255.255
0.3.255.255

Systems Security - Module 8

Question: What method is used to apply an IPv6 ACL to a router interface?

Options:

The use of the access-class command
The use of the ip access-group command
The use of the ipv6 traffic-filter command
The use of the ipv6 access-list command

Systems Security - Module 8

Question: What type of ACL offers greater flexibility and control over network access?

Options:

Flexible
Named standard
Extended
Numbered standard

Systems Security - Module 8

Question: Which operator is used in an ACL statement to match packets of a specific application?

Options:

eq
lt
gt
established

Systems Security - Module 8

Question: Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)

Options:

most
host
all
any
some
gt

Systems Security - Module 8

Question: Consider the following access list. <strong>access-list 100 permit ip host 192.168.10.1 any access-list 100 deny icmp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any echo access-list 100 permit ip any any</strong> Which two actions are taken if the access list is placed inbound on a router Gigabit Ethernet port that has the IP address 192.168.10.254 assigned? (Choose two.)

Options:

A Telnet or SSH session is allowed from any device on the 192.168.10.0 into the router with this access list assigned.
Devices on the 192.168.10.0/24 network are allowed to reply to any ping requests.
Only Layer 3 connections are allowed to be made from the router to any other network device.
Only the network device assigned the IP address 192.168.10.1 is allowed to access the router.
Devices on the 192.168.10.0/24 network can successfully ping devices on the 192.168.11.0 network.

Systems Security - Module 9

Question: What is one benefit of using a next-generation firewall rather than a stateful firewall?

Options:

Integrated use of an intrusion prevention system (IPS)
Support of TCP-based packet filtering
Reactive protection against Internet threats
Support of logging

Systems Security - Module 9

Question: Which three layers of the OSI model include information that is commonly inspected by a stateful firewall? (Choose three.)

Options:

Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5
Layer 7

Systems Security - Module 9

Question: Which statement is a characteristic of a packet filtering firewall?

Options:

They are susceptible to IP spoofing.
They have a high impact on network performance.
They filter fragmented packets.
They examine each packet in the context of the state of a connection.

Systems Security - Module 9

Question: Which type of firewall is supported by most routers and is the easiest to implement?

Options:

Packet filtering firewall
Next generation firewall
Stateful firewall
Application gateway firewall

Systems Security - Module 9

Question: Which type of traffic is usually blocked when implementing a demilitarized zone?

Options:

Traffic that is returning from the DMZ network and traveling to the private network
Traffic that is returning from the public network and traveling to the DMZ network
Traffic originating from the private network and traveling to the DMZ network
Traffic originating from the DMZ network and traveling to the private network

Systems Security - Module 9

Question: What are two characteristics of an application gateway firewall? (Choose two.)

Options:

Uses a simple policy table look-up to filter traffic based on Layer 3 and Layer 4 information.
Analyzes traffic at Layers 3, 4, 5 and 7 of the OSI model.
Performs most filtering and firewall control in software.
Uses connection information maintained in a state table and analyzes traffic at OSI Layers 3, 4, and 5.
Provides an integrated intrusion prevention and detection feature.

Systems Security - Module 9

Question: Which type of firewall generally has a low impact on network performance?

Options:

Application gateway firewall
Stateful firewall
Next generation firewall
Stateless firewall

Systems Security - Module 9

Question: Which type of firewall is commonly part of a router firewall and allows or blocks traffic based on Layer 3 or 4 information?

Options:

Stateful firewall
Packet filtering firewall
Next generation firewall
Proxy firewall

Systems Security - Module 9

Question: How does a firewall handle traffic that is originating from the DMZ network and traveling to a private network?

Options:

Traffic is usually blocked when it is originating from the DMZ network and traveling to a private network.
Traffic is usually allowed when it is originating from the DMZ network and traveling to a private network.
Traffic is usually not filtered using firewall rules when it is originating from the DMZ network and traveling to a private network.
Traffic is allowed when it is originating from the private network, but the response traffic from the DMZ network will be blocked.

Systems Security - Module 9

Question: Which two protocols are stateless and do not generate connection information needed to build a state table? (Choose two.)

Options:

ICMP
HTTP
UDP
FTP
TCP

Systems Security - Module 9

Question: What are two benefits of implementing a firewall in a network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A firewall will inspect network traffic and forward traffic based solely on the Layer 2 Ethernet MAC address.
A firewall will reduce security management complexity.
A firewall will provide accessibility of applications and sensitive resources to external untrusted users.
A firewall will sanitize protocol flow.
A firewall will prevent unauthorized traffic from being tunneled or hidden as legitimate traffic through an enterprise network.

Systems Security - Module 9

Question: When implementing a ZPF, which statement describes a zone?

Options:

A zone is a group of hardened computers known as bastion hosts.
A zone is a group of one or more interfaces that have similar functions or features.
A zone is a group of one or more devices that provide backup and disaster recovery mechanisms.
A zone is a group of administrative devices that protect against rogue access point installations.

Systems Security - Module 10

Question: Which statement accurately describes Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall operation?

Options:

The pass action works in only one direction.
A router interface can belong to multiple zones.
Service policies are applied in interface configuration mode.
Router management interfaces must be manually assigned to the self zone.

Systems Security - Module 10

Question: How does ZPF handle traffic between an interface that is a zone member and another interface that does not belong to any zone?

Options:

Pass
Drop
Allow
Inspect

Systems Security - Module 10

Question: Which statement describes a factor to be considered when configuring a zone-based policy firewall?

Options:

An interface can belong to multiple zones.
The router always filters the traffic between interfaces in the same zone.
The classic firewall ip inspect command can coexist with ZPF as long as it is used on interfaces that are in the same security zones.
A zone must be configured with the zone security global command before it can be used in the zone-member security command.

Systems Security - Module 10

Question: Which statement describes one of the rules that govern interface behavior in the context of implementing a zone-based policy firewall configuration?

Options:

An administrator can assign an interface to multiple security zones.
An administrator can assign interfaces to zones, regardless of whether the zone has been configured.
By default, traffic is allowed to flow among interfaces that are members of the same zone.
By default, traffic is allowed to flow between a zone member interface and any interface that is not a zone member.

Systems Security - Module 10

Question: Designing a ZPF requires several steps. Which step involves defining boundaries where traffic is subjected to policy restrictions as it crosses to another region of the network?

Options:

Determine the zones
Establish policies between zones
Design the physical infrastructure
Identify subsets within zones and merge traffic requirements

Systems Security - Module 10

Question: When a Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall is being configured, which two actions can be applied to a traffic class? (Choose two.)

Options:

Log
Hold
Drop
Inspect
Copy
Forward

Systems Security - Module 10

Question: Which three statements describe zone-based policy firewall rules that govern interface behavior and the traffic moving between zone member interfaces? (Choose three.)

Options:

An interface can be assigned to multiple security zones.
Interfaces can be assigned to a zone before the zone is created.
Pass, inspect, and drop options can only be applied between two zones.
If traffic is to flow between all interfaces in a router, each interface must be a member of a zone.
Traffic is implicitly prevented from flowing by default among interfaces that are members of the same zone.
To permit traffic to and from a zone member interface, a policy allowing or inspecting traffic must be configured between that zone and any other zone.

Systems Security - Module 10

Question: Which statement describes a feature of a zone-based policy firewall?

Options:

It does not depend on ACLs.
All traffic through a given interface is subject to the same inspection.
The router security posture is to allow traffic unless explicitly blocked.
It uses a flat, non-hierarchical data structure making it easier to configure and troubleshoot.

Systems Security - Module 10

Question: In what step of zone-based policy firewall configuration is traffic identified for policy application?

Options:

Assigning policy maps to zones
Creating policy maps
Configuring class maps
Defining zones

Systems Security - Module 10

Question: When configuring a class map for a zone-based policy firewall, how is the match criteria applied when using the match-all parameter?

Options:

Traffic must match all of the match criteria specified in the statement.
Traffic must match the first criteria in the statement.
Traffic must match at least one of the match criteria statements.
Traffic must match all of the criteria solely defined by ACLs.

Systems Security - Module 10

Question: In ZPF design, what is described as the self zone?

Options:

A predefined cluster of servers with configured interfaces
A predefined cluster of routers with configured interfaces
The outward facing interface on the edge router
The router itself, including all interfaces with assigned IP addresses

Systems Security - Module 10

Question: Which statement describes a zone when implementing ZPF on a Cisco router?

Options:

A zone establishes a security border of a network.
Only one zone can be attached to a single interface.
A zone is used to implement traffic filtering for either TCP or UDP.
A zone is used to define security policies for a unique interface on the router.

Systems Security - Module 11

Question: What is an IPS signature?

Options:

It is the timestamp that is applied to logged security events and alarms.
It is the authorization that is required to implement a security policy.
It is a set of rules used to detect typical intrusive activity.
It is a security script that is used to detect unknown threats.

Systems Security - Module 11

Question: Which network technology uses a passive splitting device that forwards all traffic, including Layer 1 errors, to an analysis device?

Options:

NetFlow
Network tap
SNMP
IDS

Systems Security - Module 11

Question: What is a characteristic of an IPS operating in inline-mode?

Options:

It does not affect the flow of packets in forwarded traffic.
It can stop malicious traffic from reaching the intended target.
It requires the assistance of another network device to respond to an attack.
It can only send alerts and does not drop any packets.

Systems Security - Module 11

Question: What is a zero-day attack?

Options:

It is a computer attack that occurs on the first day of the month.
It is an attack that results in no hosts able to connect to a network.
It is a computer attack that exploits unreported software vulnerabilities.
It is an attack that has no impact on the network because the software vendor has mitigated the vulnerability.

Systems Security - Module 11

Question: What is a feature of an IPS?

Options:

It can stop malicious packets.
It has no impact on latency.
It is deployed in offline mode.
It is primarily focused on identifying possible incidents.

Systems Security - Module 11

Question: Which network monitoring technology passively monitors network traffic to detect attacks?

Options:

IDS
TAP
RSPAN
IPS

Systems Security - Module 11

Question: Which open source network monitoring technology performs real-time traffic analysis and generates alerts when threats are detected on IP networks?

Options:

Snort IPS
IOS IPS
SPAN
RSPAN

Systems Security - Module 11

Question: Which Cisco platform supports Cisco Snort IPS?

Options:

800 series ISR
2900 series ISR
3900 series ISR
4000 series ISR

Systems Security - Module 11

Question: Which device supports the use of SPAN to enable monitoring of malicious activity?

Options:

Cisco NAC
Cisco IronPort
Cisco Security Agent
Cisco Catalyst switch

Systems Security - Module 11

Question: What is a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS)?

Options:

It is an agentless system that scans files on a host for potential malware.
It identifies potential attacks and sends alerts but does not stop the traffic.
It detects and stops potential direct attacks but does not scan for malware.
It combines the functionalities of antimalware applications with firewall protection.

Systems Security - Module 11

Question: Which network monitoring capability is provided by using SPAN?

Options:

Network analysts are able to access network device log files and to monitor network behavior.
Real-time reporting and long-term analysis of security events are enabled.
Statistics on packets flowing through Cisco routers and multilayer switches can be captured.
Traffic exiting and entering a switch is copied to a network monitoring device.

Systems Security - Module 11

Question: What network monitoring tool can be used to copy packets moving through one port, and send those copies to another port for analysis?

Options:

NAC
SNMP
SPAN
Syslog

Systems Security - Module 12

Question: Which IPS signature trigger category uses the simplest triggering mechanism and searches for a specific and pre-defined atomic or composite pattern?

Options:

Pattern-Based Detection
Anomaly-Based Detection
Honey Pot-Based Detection
Policy-Based Detection

Systems Security - Module 12

Question: What term describes a set of rules used by an IDS or IPS to detect typical intrusion activity?

Options:

Event file
Trigger
Definition
Signature

Systems Security - Module 12

Question: Which type of alert is generated when an IPS incorrectly identifies normal network user traffic as attack traffic?

Options:

True positive
True negative
False positive
False negative

Systems Security - Module 12

Question: What is a characteristic of the Snort subscriber rule set term-based subscription?

Options:

It provides 30-day delayed access to updated signatures.
It focuses on reactive responses to security threats.
It is available for a fee.
It does not provide access to Cisco support.

Systems Security - Module 12

Question: Which classification indicates that an alert is verified as an actual security incident?

Options:

True positive
True negative
False positive
False negative

Systems Security - Module 12

Question: Which intrusion prevention service was available on first-generation ISR routers and is no longer supported by Cisco?

Options:

Cisco IOS IPS
Cisco Firepower Next-Generation
Cisco Snort IPS
External Snort IPS Server

Systems Security - Module 12

Question: Which statement correctly describes the configuration of a Snort VPG interface?

Options:

The VPG0 interface must have a routable address with access to the internet.
The VPG1 interface must be configured with a public IP address.
The VPG1 interface must use a routable static IP address.
The VPG1 interface must receive an address from DHCP.

Systems Security - Module 12

Question: What are three actions that can be performed by Snort in IDS mode? (Choose three.)

Options:

Log
Drop
Alert
Reject
Sdrop
Pass

Systems Security - Module 12

Question: Which device is a dedicated inline threat prevention appliance that is effective against both known and unknown threats?

Options:

Cisco FirePOWER NGIPS
Cisco Snort IPS
Cisco ASA
Cisco IOS IPS

Systems Security - Module 12

Question: Which rule action will cause Snort IPS to block a packet without logging it?

Options:

Drop
Reject
Alert
Sdrop

Systems Security - Module 12

Question: What is the source for IPS rule updates when using a Cisco intrusion prevention service?

Options:

Cisco Talos
Cisco.com
Security Onion
SIEM

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cloud computing?

Options:

On-demand self-service
Broad network access
Limited resource pooling
Rapid elasticity

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: In virtualization, a Type 1 hypervisor is also known as:

Options:

Hosted hypervisor
Bare-metal hypervisor
Client-side hypervisor
Nested hypervisor

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: VMware Workstation Pro is classified as which type of hypervisor?

Options:

Type 1 hypervisor
Type 2 hypervisor
Type 3 hypervisor
Cloud-based hypervisor

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Which feature in Oracle VM VirtualBox allows seamless integration of guest windows into the host desktop?

Options:

Guest Additions
Shared Folders
Seamless Mode
Virtual Networking

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Microsoft Hyper-V allows the creation of three types of virtual switches. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

Options:

External
Internal
Private
Public

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: In cloud service models, Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides:

Options:

Virtualized hardware resources
Development tools and environment
Ready-to-use software applications
Networking hardware and protocols

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: VMware ESXi is best described as:

Options:

A Type 2 hypervisor requiring a host OS
A cloud service model
A Type 1 hypervisor for server virtualization
A desktop virtualization application

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: The Rapid Elasticity characteristic of cloud computing refers to:

Options:

The ability to stretch network cables
Quick scaling of resources up or down as needed
Fast data transmission speeds
Immediate software updates

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: In VMware ICM Module 4, the recommended practice before making significant changes to a VM is to:

Options:

Clone the VM
Take a snapshot
Shut down the VM
Increase the VM's memory

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Which of the following is a benefit of using virtualization?

Options:

Increased hardware costs
Reduced server utilization
Isolation of applications
Limited scalability

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Match the virtualization tools to their appropriate descriptions:

Options:

1. VMware Workstation Pro
2. Oracle VM VirtualBox
3. Microsoft Hyper-V
4. VMware ESXi
5. Docker

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: In cloud computing, the service model where users are provided with applications over the internet is known as ______________.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: ________________ is a software layer that enables multiple operating systems to share a single hardware host.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: The ______________ feature in virtualization allows you to save the state of a virtual machine at a specific point in time.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: ________________ is the process of creating a virtual version of something, such as hardware or a storage device.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: In VMware, ______________ provides centralized management of virtualized hosts and VMs.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Explain the differences between Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisors. Provide examples of each and discuss scenarios where one might be preferred over the other.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Discuss the benefits and challenges of cloud computing in modern IT infrastructure. How does virtualization support cloud computing?

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Describe the process of creating a virtual machine in VMware Workstation Pro. Highlight the key steps and considerations during the setup.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Oracle VM VirtualBox offers "Guest Additions". Explain what this feature is and how it enhances the performance and usability of virtual machines.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: In the context of VMware ICM Module 1, define what is meant by a Software-Defined Data Center (SDDC) and discuss its importance in enterprise environments.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cloud computing?

Options:

On-demand self-service
Broad network access
Limited resource pooling
Rapid elasticity

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: In virtualization, a Type 1 hypervisor is also known as:

Options:

Hosted hypervisor
Bare-metal hypervisor
Client-side hypervisor
Nested hypervisor

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: VMware Workstation Pro is classified as which type of hypervisor?

Options:

Type 1 hypervisor
Type 2 hypervisor
Type 3 hypervisor
Cloud-based hypervisor

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Which feature in Oracle VM VirtualBox allows seamless integration of guest windows into the host desktop?

Options:

Guest Additions
Shared Folders
Seamless Mode
Virtual Networking

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Microsoft Hyper-V allows the creation of three types of virtual switches. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

Options:

External
Internal
Private
Public

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: In cloud service models, Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides:

Options:

Virtualized hardware resources
Development tools and environment
Ready-to-use software applications
Networking hardware and protocols

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: VMware ESXi is best described as:

Options:

A Type 2 hypervisor requiring a host OS
A cloud service model
A Type 1 hypervisor for server virtualization
A desktop virtualization application

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: The Rapid Elasticity characteristic of cloud computing refers to:

Options:

The ability to stretch network cables
Quick scaling of resources up or down as needed
Fast data transmission speeds
Immediate software updates

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: In VMware ICM Module 4, the recommended practice before making significant changes to a VM is to:

Options:

Clone the VM
Take a snapshot
Shut down the VM
Increase the VM's memory

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Which of the following is a benefit of using virtualization?

Options:

Increased hardware costs
Reduced server utilization
Isolation of applications
Limited scalability

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Match the virtualization tools to their appropriate descriptions:

Options:

1. VMware Workstation Pro
2. Oracle VM VirtualBox
3. Microsoft Hyper-V
4. VMware ESXi
5. Docker

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: In cloud computing, the service model where users are provided with applications over the internet is known as ______________.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: ________________ is a software layer that enables multiple operating systems to share a single hardware host.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: The ______________ feature in virtualization allows you to save the state of a virtual machine at a specific point in time.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: ________________ is the process of creating a virtual version of something, such as hardware or a storage device.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: In VMware, ______________ provides centralized management of virtualized hosts and VMs.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Explain the differences between Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisors. Provide examples of each and discuss scenarios where one might be preferred over the other.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Discuss the benefits and challenges of cloud computing in modern IT infrastructure. How does virtualization support cloud computing?

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Describe the process of creating a virtual machine in VMware Workstation Pro. Highlight the key steps and considerations during the setup.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Oracle VM VirtualBox offers "Guest Additions". Explain what this feature is and how it enhances the performance and usability of virtual machines.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: In the context of VMware ICM Module 1, define what is meant by a Software-Defined Data Center (SDDC) and discuss its importance in enterprise environments.

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Which of the following is NOT a feature of VMware Workstation Pro?

Options:

Snapshot management
Virtual machine cloning
Direct access to physical hardware
Multiple VM support

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Which file format is used to store virtual machines in VMware Workstation?

Options:

.vmdk
.iso
.vmx
.exe

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: In VMware Workstation Pro, which feature allows you to run multiple virtual machines simultaneously?

Options:

VMware Fusion
Virtual Machine Network
Virtual Machine Isolation
VMware Workstation Pro

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Which of the following can be used to manage the virtual network adapters in VMware Workstation?

Options:

VMware vSphere
VMware Network Editor
VMware vCenter
VMware Fusion

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: VMware Workstation Pro is mainly used for:

Options:

Cloud-based applications
Development and testing
Data storage management
Server virtualization

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Which of the following is a key feature of Oracle VM VirtualBox?

Options:

Seamless mode
Hyper-V integration
Multiple guest OS per VM
Native cloud integration

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: In VirtualBox, which of the following file types represents a virtual machine disk image?

Options:

.vmdk
.iso
.vdi
.vpx

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Which of the following is NOT a supported host operating system for Oracle VM VirtualBox?

Options:

Windows
Linux
MacOS
Chrome OS

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: In VirtualBox, a VM can be connected to the host network using:

Options:

Host-only adapter
Internal network
NAT adapter
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Which component is required to enable better guest OS performance in VirtualBox?

Options:

Guest Additions
Host Extensions
VirtualBox Management Suite
VirtualBox Host Add-ons

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Which of the following best describes the role of Hyper-V in virtualization?

Options:

Cloud management tool
Type 1 hypervisor for running virtual machines
Type 2 hypervisor for running guest OS
Virtual machine monitoring tool

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: In Hyper-V, which of the following is a virtual switch type?

Options:

Internal
External
Private
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Which of the following is NOT a feature of Microsoft Hyper-V?

Options:

Snapshot management
Live migration
Multiple virtual CPUs per VM
Support for virtual hardware appliances

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: In Hyper-V, what feature allows you to move virtual machines between hosts without downtime?

Options:

Live Migration
Snapshot
Hyper-V Replica
Dynamic Memory

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Which of the following is the correct command to start a virtual machine in Hyper-V using PowerShell?

Options:

Start-VM
Run-VM
Start-VirtualMachine
VMStart

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: In VMware ICM, which component is responsible for centralized management of virtual machines?

Options:

vCenter Server
vSphere Client
VMware Workstation
ESXi

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Which of the following is NOT a function of vSphere HA (High Availability)?

Options:

Automatic VM restart
VMware Fault Tolerance
Clustered VM migration
VM monitoring

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: In VMware vSphere, which feature allows VMs to move from one host to another without interruption?

Options:

VMware vMotion
VMware Fault Tolerance
VMware DRS
VMware HA

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Which of the following actions can be performed in the VMware vSphere Web Client?

Options:

VM cloning
VM storage management
VM migration
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Which of the following describes a virtual machine snapshot in VMware?

Options:

A point-in-time copy of a virtual machine
A backup of the virtual machine
A clone of the virtual machine
A running instance of the VM

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Which of the following is the key benefit of cloud computing?

Options:

Increased physical hardware requirements
On-demand resource scaling
Higher capital expenditure
Fewer software solutions

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: What does IaaS stand for in cloud computing?

Options:

Infrastructure as a Service
Integration as a Service
Internet as a Service
Information as a Service

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Which of the following is an example of a Platform as a Service (PaaS)?

Options:

AWS EC2
Google App Engine
Microsoft Azure Storage
Amazon S3

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: What is a hypervisor in the context of virtualization?

Options:

A virtual machine monitor
A physical server
A cloud service
A storage solution

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: In a private cloud, who manages and controls the cloud environment?

Options:

A third-party provider
An organization itself
The general public
A hybrid cloud provider

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Which of the following is a virtual disk format used by VMware Workstation?

Options:

.vmdk
.iso
.vdi
.vpx

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: What feature allows VMware Workstation to run guest operating systems in a seamless window?

Options:

Seamless Mode
VMware Tools
SnapShot
Full-screen mode

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Which of the following is used to manage the virtual network in VMware Workstation?

Options:

Virtual Network Editor
vSphere Client
VMware Cloud Director
VMware Fusion

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: How can you increase the memory allocation for a virtual machine in VMware Workstation?

Options:

Edit the VM settings
Increase the physical host memory
Upgrade the operating system
Add a new hard drive

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: What is the maximum number of virtual machines you can run simultaneously in VMware Workstation Pro?

Options:

Depends on the host hardware
5
10
Unlimited

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Which of the following is NOT supported in Oracle VM VirtualBox?

Options:

USB device pass-through
3D acceleration
vMotion
Shared folders

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: How can you create a snapshot of a virtual machine in Oracle VM VirtualBox?

Options:

Using VirtualBox Manager
By copying the VM folder
By using command-line tools
By exporting the VM

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Which of the following is required to run a 64-bit virtual machine in Oracle VM VirtualBox?

Options:

64-bit host OS
64-bit processor
Enabled hardware virtualization in BIOS
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Which network adapter mode provides internet access to a virtual machine in VirtualBox?

Options:

Bridged Adapter
Host-Only Adapter
Internal Network
NAT

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Which of the following is a correct method to add a new virtual disk to a virtual machine in VirtualBox?

Options:

Attach it in VM settings
Insert it into the guest OS
Download from the internet
Create a new VM

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Which of the following Hyper-V components is used to manage virtual machines and hosts?

Options:

Hyper-V Manager
VirtualBox Manager
vSphere Client
Hyper-V Console

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Which of the following storage options is recommended for running a Hyper-V virtual machine?

Options:

Direct-attached storage
iSCSI
Shared storage
Network-attached storage

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Which of the following is NOT a type of virtual switch in Hyper-V?

Options:

External
Private
Internal
Shared

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Which of the following is the default location for Hyper-V virtual machine files?

Options:

C:Program FilesMicrosoft Hyper-V
C:UsersPublicDocumentsHyper-V
C:Virtual Machines
C:Hyper-V VM

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: What is the purpose of Hyper-V Replica?

Options:

To replicate virtual machine data across servers
To migrate virtual machines between hosts
To backup virtual machines
To integrate virtual machines with Active Directory

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: In VMware vSphere, what is the function of Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)?

Options:

Automatically moves VMs to balance resource usage
Performs VM backups
Patches VMs
Creates VM templates

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Which of the following tasks is performed by VMware vCenter Server?

Options:

Managing and monitoring ESXi hosts
Upgrading VMware Workstation
Creating VM snapshots
Setting up network switches

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Which technology in VMware vSphere allows a virtual machine to migrate to another host without downtime?

Options:

vMotion
vCenter
vSphere HA
VMware Workstation

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Which VMware feature allows centralized management of virtualized infrastructure?

Options:

vSphere Web Client
vCenter Server
vCloud Director
VMware Horizon

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: What is the purpose of VMware Fault Tolerance?

Options:

Provide a live replica of a VM for continuous availability
Migrate virtual machines between ESXi hosts
Backup virtual machine data
Create virtual machine snapshots

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is virtualization?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are the different types of virtualization?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: Explain the concept of hypervisor.

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are the main benefits of using virtualization technologies?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are the different types of hypervisors?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: Compare and contrast VMware and VirtualBox.

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is a virtual machine (VM)?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: Explain the difference between a virtual machine and a container.

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are the different components of a virtual machine?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is snapshotting in virtualization?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are some common virtualization management tools?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: Explain the concept of live migration in virtualization.

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are some common security considerations in virtualization?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are some best practices for implementing virtualization?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is a virtual switch?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are some challenges associated with virtualization?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is a virtual disk?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the purpose of a virtual network?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: Explain the concept of thin provisioning in virtualization.

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the difference between a thick provisioned disk and a thin provisioned disk?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is a virtual machine template?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the difference between a Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisor?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are some common virtualization use cases?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the purpose of resource allocation in virtualization?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are the different types of virtual network topologies?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is vSphere?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are some common commands used in VMware ESXi?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the difference between a virtual machine and a container?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are the key features of VMware vCenter Server?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is vMotion in VMware?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the difference between vMotion and Storage vMotion?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is VMware vSAN?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are the benefits of using VMware vSAN?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is VMware NSX?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are the key features of VMware NSX?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the difference between VMware vSphere and VMware vCenter Server?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the difference between VMware Workstation and VMware ESXi?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are the different types of virtual network adapters available in VMware?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is a cluster in VMware?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the purpose of a resource pool in VMware?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the difference between a resource pool and a resource allocation rule?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is a datastore in VMware?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the difference between a datastore and a storage volume?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the difference between a virtual machine and a physical machine?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the difference between a host operating system and a guest operating system?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are some common virtual machine file formats?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the difference between a virtual machine and a virtual appliance?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the difference between a virtual network and a physical network?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the purpose of a virtual network switch?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are the different types of virtual network switch configurations?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the difference between a virtual switch and a physical switch?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the difference between a virtual network and a virtual private network (VPN)?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the purpose of a virtual machine console?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What are some common virtual machine console tools?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the difference between a virtual machine console and a remote desktop?

Systems Virtualization - Interview Questions

Question: What is the difference between a virtual machine and a virtual desktop?

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: What is the primary purpose of virtualization in cloud computing?

Options:

Increase hardware costs
Reduce resource efficiency
Enable resource sharing
Limit scalability

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: A _______ cloud combines resources from both public and private clouds.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Match the virtualization types with their descriptions:

Options:

1. Server Virtualization
2. Desktop Virtualization
3. Application Virtualization

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Explain how multi-tenancy works in a public cloud environment.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Which of these is a disadvantage of cloud computing?

Options:

Cost savings
Data security concerns
Scalability
Flexibility

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: The ability to quickly provision computing resources as needed is called _______.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Match the cloud computing benefits with their examples:

Options:

1. Cost Efficiency
2. Accessibility
3. Disaster Recovery

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Describe the role of APIs in cloud computing.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Which cloud model is shared among multiple organizations with similar needs?

Options:

Public
Private
Hybrid
Community

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: _______ is a software layer that abstracts hardware resources for virtual machines.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Match the cloud service models with their use cases:

Options:

1. IaaS
2. PaaS
3. SaaS

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Discuss the environmental benefits of cloud computing.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Which of these is an example of a SaaS application?

Options:

Amazon EC2
Google Drive
Microsoft Azure
VMware ESXi

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: The practice of measuring and billing cloud resource usage is known as _______.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Match the virtualization challenges with their explanations:

Options:

1. Performance Overhead
2. Security Risks
3. Resource Contention

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Explain the difference between Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisors.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Which deployment model is most cost-effective for small businesses?

Options:

Public
Private
Hybrid
Community

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: _______ enables multiple virtual machines to share a single physical server's resources.

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Match the cloud terms with their meanings:

Options:

1. SLA
2. CAPEX
3. OPEX

Systems Virtualization - NDG: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts

Question: Discuss the impact of cloud computing on IT staffing needs.

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: What is the purpose of Unity Mode in VMware Workstation Pro?

Options:

Run VMs in the background
Integrate guest apps into the host desktop
Clone VMs
Take snapshots

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: The _______ feature in VMware Workstation Pro enhances guest OS performance.

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Match the VMware Workstation Pro actions with their purposes:

Options:

1. Suspend
2. Power Off
3. Reset

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Explain how to create a linked clone in VMware Workstation Pro.

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Which networking mode allows VMs to act as physical devices on the network?

Options:

NAT
Bridged
Host-only
Custom

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: _______ allows file sharing between the host and guest OS in VMware Workstation Pro.

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Match the VMware Workstation Pro virtual hardware with its role:

Options:

1. Virtual CD/DVD
2. Virtual NIC
3. Virtual Sound Card

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Describe the benefits of using linked clones instead of full clones.

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Which option allows you to test software without affecting the original VM?

Options:

Snapshot
Clone
Template
Export

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: In VMware Workstation Pro, _______ enables direct access to a physical disk.

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Match the VMware Workstation Pro settings with their functions:

Options:

1. Memory
2. Processors
3. Display

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Explain the process of exporting a VM as an OVF file.

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Which feature allows dragging files between host and guest OS?

Options:

Drag and Drop
Shared Folders
Clipboard Sharing
Unity Mode

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: The _______ option in VMware Workstation Pro creates a full copy of a VM.

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Match the VMware Workstation Pro snapshot options with their effects:

Options:

1. Revert
2. Delete
3. Take

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Discuss the use of VMware Workstation Pro in a lab environment.

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Which setting adjusts the number of CPU cores assigned to a VM?

Options:

Memory
Processors
Network
Storage

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: _______ is required to run 64-bit guest OSes in VMware Workstation Pro.

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Match the VMware Workstation Pro file types with their purposes:

Options:

1. .vmx
2. .vmdk
3. .nvram

Systems Virtualization - VMware Workstation Pro

Question: Explain how to configure a VM to boot from an ISO file.

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: What does Seamless Mode do in Oracle VM VirtualBox?

Options:

Runs VMs in the background
Integrates guest apps into the host desktop
Clones VMs
Creates snapshots

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: The _______ feature in VirtualBox improves guest OS integration.

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Match the VirtualBox actions with their purposes:

Options:

1. Pause
2. Stop
3. Reset

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Explain how to create a clone of a VM in VirtualBox.

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Which networking mode isolates VMs from the external network?

Options:

NAT
Bridged
Internal
Host-only

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: _______ allows dragging files between host and guest in VirtualBox.

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Match the VirtualBox virtual hardware with its role:

Options:

1. Virtual Floppy
2. Virtual Network
3. Virtual USB

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Describe how to set up shared folders in VirtualBox.

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Which feature saves the current state of a VM in VirtualBox?

Options:

Snapshot
Clone
Export
Backup

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: In VirtualBox, _______ runs VMs without a GUI.

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Match the VirtualBox settings with their purposes:

Options:

1. Base Memory
2. Video Memory
3. Acceleration

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Explain the process of exporting a VM in VirtualBox.

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Which option allows VMs to share the host’s IP address?

Options:

NAT
Bridged
Host-only
Internal

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: The _______ command-line tool manages VirtualBox VMs.

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Match the VirtualBox snapshot actions with their effects:

Options:

1. Restore
2. Delete
3. Take

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Discuss the advantages of VirtualBox being open-source.

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Which setting determines the amount of RAM allocated to a VM?

Options:

Base Memory
Video Memory
Acceleration
Storage

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: _______ is required to enable 3D acceleration in VirtualBox.

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Match the VirtualBox file types with their uses:

Options:

1. .vdi
2. .vbox
3. .log

Systems Virtualization - Oracle VM VirtualBox

Question: Explain how to attach a USB device to a VM in VirtualBox.

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: What is the purpose of Hyper-V Integration Services?

Options:

Enhance guest OS performance
Manage virtual switches
Clone VMs
Take snapshots

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: The _______ feature in Hyper-V provides automatic VM restart after a host failure.

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Match the Hyper-V actions with their purposes:

Options:

1. Start
2. Turn Off
3. Save

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Explain how to configure Hyper-V Replica for disaster recovery.

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Which virtual switch type connects VMs to the physical network?

Options:

External
Internal
Private
Isolated

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: _______ allows moving a VM between hosts without downtime in Hyper-V.

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Match the Hyper-V storage options with their features:

Options:

1. Fixed Size Disk
2. Dynamically Expanding Disk
3. Differencing Disk

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Describe the difference between Generation 1 and Generation 2 VMs in Hyper-V.

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Which feature adjusts VM memory based on demand?

Options:

Dynamic Memory
Static Memory
Memory Reservation
Memory Overcommit

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: In Hyper-V, _______ captures a VM’s state for later restoration.

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Match the Hyper-V tools with their uses:

Options:

1. Hyper-V Manager
2. Failover Cluster Manager
3. PowerShell

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Explain how to export a VM in Hyper-V.

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Which switch type allows VM-to-VM communication only?

Options:

External
Internal
Private
NAT

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: The _______ disk format in Hyper-V supports up to 64 TB.

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Match the Hyper-V checkpoint types with their uses:

Options:

1. Standard
2. Production

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Discuss the benefits of Hyper-V for small businesses.

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Which setting enables hardware-assisted virtualization in Hyper-V?

Options:

VT-x/AMD-V
SLAT
DEP
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: _______ connects VMs to SAN storage in Hyper-V.

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Match the Hyper-V networking components with their roles:

Options:

1. Virtual Switch
2. NIC Teaming
3. VLAN

Systems Virtualization - Microsoft Hyper-V

Question: Explain how to configure Dynamic Memory for a VM in Hyper-V.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: What is the role of VMware vSphere Client?

Options:

Manage ESXi hosts
Configure virtual switches
Monitor VM performance
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: The _______ component in vSphere provides software-defined storage.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Match the vSphere features with their benefits:

Options:

1. Storage vMotion
2. FT
3. vSphere Replication

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Explain the purpose of Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) in vSphere.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Which feature moves a VM’s storage without interrupting its operation?

Options:

vMotion
Storage vMotion
HA
DRS

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: In vSphere, _______ ensures VMs restart on another host after a failure.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Match the vSphere networking types with their descriptions:

Options:

1. VMkernel
2. Virtual Machine
3. Management

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Describe how to create a resource pool in vCenter Server.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Which vSphere feature encrypts VM data at rest?

Options:

VM Encryption
Secure Boot
vSphere Trust Authority
DRS

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: The _______ file system in vSphere stores virtual machine files.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Match the vSphere deployment options with their uses:

Options:

1. Template
2. Clone
3. OVF

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Explain the benefits of vSphere Fault Tolerance.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Which option allows live migration of VMs between hosts?

Options:

vMotion
Storage vMotion
DRS
HA

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: In vSphere, _______ provides a centralized interface for managing multiple clusters.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Match the vSphere monitoring tools with their functions:

Options:

1. vSphere Client
2. ESXi Shell
3. vRealize Operations

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Discuss the role of vSphere in hybrid cloud environments.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Which feature ensures only trusted software runs on an ESXi host?

Options:

Secure Boot
VM Encryption
vSphere Trust Authority
HA

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: _______ is used to export a VM as a portable package in vSphere.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Match the vSphere security features with their purposes:

Options:

1. Role-Based Access
2. Lockdown Mode
3. Audit Logs

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 1 & 4

Question: Explain how to configure a VM to use a specific datastore in vSphere.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is the primary purpose of an ESXi host?

Options:

To host virtual machines
To manage storage
To secure networks
To provide backup services

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which component is essential for installing ESXi?

Options:

Server hardware
Cloud software
Desktop OS
Network switch

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which tool is primarily used to manage ESXi hosts after installation?

Options:

vSphere Client
ESXi Shell
Web Client
PowerCLI

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which installation method is ideal for bulk ESXi deployment?

Options:

Interactive installation
Unattended installation
Manual installation
Custom installation

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What type of license unlocks the full functionality of ESXi?

Options:

Free license
Evaluation license
Commercial license
OEM license

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which network configuration is recommended for ESXi hosts?

Options:

Dynamic IP
Static IP
No IP configuration
Manual DNS

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is one major benefit of using ESXi over a traditional OS?

Options:

Improved security
Enhanced performance
Lower cost
Simpler management

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which storage configurations are supported by ESXi?

Options:

Local storage
SAN
NAS
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is the significance of a VMkernel adapter in ESXi?

Options:

Manages network traffic
Handles storage I/O
Monitors host performance
Provides backup

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: How can administrators access the ESXi host console?

Options:

SSH
Direct console access
Web interface
vCenter Server

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which hypervisor type is ESXi classified as?

Options:

Bare-metal hypervisor
Hosted hypervisor
Container-based hypervisor
Cloud hypervisor

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is the minimum memory requirement for installing ESXi 8?

Options:

2GB
4GB
8GB
16GB

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which network protocol is used for secure management of ESXi hosts?

Options:

HTTP
HTTPS
FTP
SSH

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is the advantage of using a bootable USB for ESXi installation?

Options:

Faster installation
Improved performance
Enhanced security
Lower cost

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which hardware component must be compatible with ESXi for a successful installation?

Options:

BIOS
CPU
Firmware
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is the primary role of the ESXi installer?

Options:

To update drivers
To deploy the hypervisor
To manage storage
To secure the host

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which command line interface is used to manage ESXi hosts?

Options:

PowerCLI
ESXi Shell
vCLI
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is a benefit of clustering ESXi hosts?

Options:

Enhanced performance
High availability
Simplified configuration
Cost reduction

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which component enables ESXi hosts to communicate with vCenter Server?

Options:

Management network
Storage network
Virtual switch
NIC teaming

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: How can you verify that an ESXi host has been successfully installed?

Options:

Ping the host
Check the boot log
Use the vSphere Client
Restart the server

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which installation media is most commonly recommended for ESXi 8?

Options:

DVD
USB drive
Network boot
ISO file

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is a common cause for ESXi installation failures?

Options:

Incompatible hardware
Excessive memory
Fast network speeds
High storage capacity

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which virtualization model does ESXi primarily support?

Options:

Containerization
Full virtualization
Paravirtualization
Emulation

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: How are ESXi hosts typically updated?

Options:

Through the vSphere Client
Via SSH
Using VMware Update Manager
Manually editing files

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What does the ESXi installer verify before beginning installation?

Options:

Hardware compatibility
Software updates
Network speed
User permissions

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is the benefit of using a custom installation image for ESXi?

Options:

Simplifies driver inclusion
Reduces installation time
Improves security
Enhances performance

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which log file is most useful for troubleshooting ESXi installation issues?

Options:

/var/log/esxi.log
/var/log/vmkernel.log
/var/log/hostd.log
/var/log/boot.log

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is a common post-installation task for an ESXi host?

Options:

Rebooting the server
Configuring network settings
Installing antivirus
Defragmenting storage

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is the recommended method to remotely access ESXi logs?

Options:

SSH
FTP
Telnet
HTTP

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which hardware component is least critical for ESXi performance?

Options:

CPU
Memory
Graphics card
Storage

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: How does clustering enhance the availability of ESXi hosts?

Options:

Increases performance
Improves fault tolerance
Simplifies management
Reduces cost

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which component is necessary for communication between ESXi and vCenter?

Options:

Management network
Storage network
Virtual switch
NIC teaming

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: How do you ensure that an ESXi host remains updated with security patches?

Options:

Automatic updates
Manual patching
Firmware updates
Driver updates

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is the impact of running ESXi in a nested virtualization environment?

Options:

Improved performance
Layered virtualization
Reduced overhead
Potential performance degradation

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which setting is critical when configuring the ESXi management network?

Options:

DNS settings
Time synchronization
IP addressing
Proxy configuration

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is the primary interface used for initial ESXi configuration?

Options:

Direct console
vSphere Web Client
PowerCLI
Remote desktop

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: How does ESXi isolate guest virtual machines?

Options:

Through virtual switches
Using VMkernel
By the hypervisor layer
With firewall rules

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which protocol is used for secure management communications in ESXi?

Options:

HTTP
HTTPS
FTP
SNMP

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: How does ESXi support hardware redundancy?

Options:

Dual processors
Redundant network adapters
RAID configurations
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is one method to monitor ESXi host performance?

Options:

Using built-in tools
Third-party software
Manual checks
Visual inspection

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which factor is least important when planning an ESXi deployment?

Options:

Scalability
Redundancy
Aesthetics
Resource allocation

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is the function of the ESXi boot bank?

Options:

Store configuration files
Hold the hypervisor code
Backup virtual machines
Manage drivers

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which method is recommended for securing the ESXi host console?

Options:

Disabling direct access
Using a strong password
Enabling guest login
Allowing remote access

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: How is remote management of an ESXi host typically enabled?

Options:

Enabling SSH
Configuring FTP
Using Telnet
Activating SNMP

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is a typical task performed after installing ESXi on a host?

Options:

Installing applications
Configuring network settings
Running benchmarks
Defragmenting drives

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which tool is used to automate patch management for ESXi hosts?

Options:

vSphere Update Manager
PowerCLI
vCenter Converter
ESXi Installer

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is an advantage of using the ESXi direct console user interface?

Options:

Graphical interface
Quick troubleshooting
Remote access
Multiple sessions

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: How do you ensure data integrity during an ESXi installation?

Options:

Using RAID
Running backups
Verifying checksums
Monitoring temperature

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which setting is crucial for achieving optimal performance on an ESXi host?

Options:

Power management
Display resolution
USB configuration
Sound settings

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: How does proper power management affect ESXi host performance?

Options:

Increases energy consumption
Improves performance
Causes overheating
Reduces security

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What is the purpose of vCenter Server in a VMware environment?

Options:

Centralized management
Backup operations
Direct hardware access
User authentication

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which component is essential for managing multiple ESXi hosts?

Options:

vSphere Client
vCenter Server
ESXi Shell
Virtual SAN

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: How does vCenter Server assist with resource allocation?

Options:

By monitoring performance
By automating VM placement
By reducing network load
By managing storage arrays

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which feature in vCenter Server enables efficient management of virtual resources?

Options:

Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)
vMotion
Storage vMotion
Fault Tolerance

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which tool in vCenter allows live migration of virtual machines?

Options:

vMotion
DRS
vSphere Client
High Availability

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What is the benefit of Storage vMotion in a VMware environment?

Options:

Migrating VMs between hosts
Migrating VMs between storage locations
Increasing VM performance
Enhancing security

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What does VMware High Availability (HA) provide in vCenter?

Options:

Automatic load balancing
Automatic VM restart
Scheduled backups
Network segmentation

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which feature ensures continuous service in the event of hardware failure?

Options:

vMotion
Fault Tolerance
DRS
vCenter Server

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: How is vCenter Server typically deployed?

Options:

On a physical server
As a virtual appliance
On a client PC
Directly on an ESXi host

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What is the role of the vSphere Web Client?

Options:

Hardware management
Web-based management of vCenter
Direct host configuration
VM backup

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which feature in vCenter enables automated distribution of VMs based on load?

Options:

DRS
HA
vMotion
Storage vMotion

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: How does vCenter Server improve VM availability?

Options:

By scheduling downtime
By automating VM restarts
By manual intervention
By powering off idle VMs

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What does vCenter Server use to monitor and manage host performance?

Options:

Performance charts
Event logs
Real-time alerts
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which component is critical for enabling vMotion operations?

Options:

Shared storage
Local storage
High network bandwidth
Server cooling

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: How does vCenter Server support virtual machine backups?

Options:

Through third-party integrations
Using built-in backup tools
Manual snapshot management
Direct disk imaging

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What is a key function of the Distributed Virtual Switch (DVS) in vCenter?

Options:

Simplify network management
Improve VM performance
Increase storage capacity
Reduce licensing costs

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which feature in vCenter helps optimize storage utilization?

Options:

Storage DRS
vMotion
Fault Tolerance
vSphere Web Client

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What is the purpose of the vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA)?

Options:

To host VMs
To provide centralized management
To backup data
To act as a storage controller

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which mechanism does vCenter Server use to balance workload across hosts?

Options:

Manual allocation
DRS
vMotion
High Availability

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What is one of the benefits of using vCenter Server for resource management?

Options:

Simplified licensing
Improved scalability
Reduced storage needs
Enhanced graphics performance

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: How can vCenter Server help reduce downtime during maintenance?

Options:

By scheduling maintenance windows
By enabling vMotion
By providing backup services
By using local storage

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which feature enables live migration of storage without downtime?

Options:

vMotion
Storage vMotion
DRS
Fault Tolerance

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What role does the vSphere Web Client play in managing vCenter?

Options:

It manages physical servers
It provides a web interface for management
It replaces the vCenter Server
It handles storage replication

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which feature ensures high availability for vCenter Server components?

Options:

vSphere HA
Clustered appliances
DRS
vMotion

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What is the purpose of vCenter alarms?

Options:

To monitor hardware temperature
To alert administrators of issues
To manage VM snapshots
To perform backups

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: How does vCenter Server facilitate VM cloning?

Options:

Using manual copy procedures
Through cloning wizards
By duplicating storage arrays
By automating vMotion

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which feature allows for the creation of VM templates in vCenter?

Options:

Snapshot management
Template cloning
Content libraries
Backup tools

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What is one advantage of using vCenter Server in a virtualized environment?

Options:

Increased manual intervention
Centralized monitoring
Isolated host management
Local storage optimization

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: How does vCenter Server enhance security in a virtualized environment?

Options:

By using local passwords
By centralizing user management
By disabling network features
By reducing storage options

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What does vCenter Server use to report on overall system health?

Options:

Event logs
Performance metrics
Hardware alerts
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which feature of vCenter aids in managing large-scale environments?

Options:

Local storage
Hierarchical management
Simple clustering
Manual resource allocation

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What is the primary benefit of using vCenter Server for virtual machine lifecycle management?

Options:

Automated provisioning
Manual configuration
Local monitoring
Direct hardware control

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: How does vCenter Server simplify the management of virtual machine snapshots?

Options:

By automatic deletion
Through snapshot wizards
Using manual commands
With built-in reporting

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which feature in vCenter allows for automation of routine tasks?

Options:

Task scheduler
Manual scripts
User alerts
vMotion

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What is one key benefit of using the vCenter Server Appliance over a Windows-based vCenter?

Options:

Lower hardware requirements
Easier deployment
Better performance
More features

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which component of vCenter Server allows administrators to view detailed reports on VM performance?

Options:

Dashboard
Performance charts
Event logs
Alarms

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: How does vCenter Server facilitate effective storage management?

Options:

Through DRS
By monitoring storage I/O
Using Storage DRS
Manual allocation

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What is a primary role of vCenter Server in disaster recovery planning?

Options:

Automated backups
VM replication
Manual recovery procedures
Direct storage management

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which feature in vCenter Server helps in reducing administrative overhead?

Options:

Automated alerts
Centralized management
Local monitoring
Manual updates

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: How does vCenter Server assist with capacity planning?

Options:

By tracking resource usage
Through user feedback
By reducing workload
Through hardware upgrades

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which technology enables live migration of VMs without downtime in vCenter?

Options:

vMotion
DRS
Fault Tolerance
Storage vMotion

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What challenge is addressed by vCenter Server in virtualized environments?

Options:

Complex hardware configuration
Fragmented management
Limited scalability
Lack of security

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: How does vCenter Server support proactive maintenance of ESXi hosts?

Options:

By scheduling reboots
Through real-time monitoring
By performing manual checks
Using static configurations

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What is a benefit of automating routine tasks in vCenter Server?

Options:

Increased errors
Reduced administrative burden
Higher hardware costs
Complex configuration

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which feature allows vCenter to automatically detect changes in the virtual environment?

Options:

Event logging
Change monitoring
Auto discovery
Performance tracking

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: How does vCenter Server contribute to efficient energy management in data centers?

Options:

By reducing cooling requirements
By consolidating workloads
By enabling power capping
By controlling lighting

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What is the purpose of vCenter Server roles and permissions?

Options:

To improve network speed
To control access
To increase storage
To automate updates

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: Which tool does vCenter Server use for detailed performance analysis of VMs?

Options:

Performance charts
Event logs
Task scheduler
Alarms

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: How does vCenter Server assist in reducing the complexity of managing virtual infrastructure?

Options:

Through manual reporting
By integrating with third-party tools
By centralizing management
Using local scripts

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 4

Question: What is one of the primary benefits of using vCenter Server for workload balancing?

Options:

Increased downtime
Optimized resource distribution
Higher energy consumption
Manual intervention

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What is the primary function of a vSphere Distributed Switch (VDS)?

Options:

Centralized network management
Local network segmentation
Direct VM storage
User authentication

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which protocol is most commonly used to secure vSphere network communications?

Options:

HTTP
SSL/TLS
FTP
SNMP

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What feature of vSphere assists in creating isolated networks for virtual machines?

Options:

Port groups
Virtual NICs
Virtual switches
Firewall rules

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which component provides advanced traffic management in a vSphere environment?

Options:

vSphere Replication
vSphere Distributed Switch
ESXi Shell
vCenter Server

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: How does Network I/O Control (NIOC) benefit a vSphere network?

Options:

By limiting VM CPU usage
By prioritizing network traffic
By managing storage queues
By automating backups

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What is the role of a virtual network adapter in ESXi hosts?

Options:

To connect VMs to physical networks
To store VM data
To manage host resources
To secure virtual machines

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which setting is crucial when configuring a distributed switch for optimal performance?

Options:

Jumbo frames
Power management
Antivirus configuration
Local firewall rules

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: How does vSphere ensure network redundancy in a virtual environment?

Options:

By using multiple virtual switches
By implementing NIC teaming
By duplicating VM settings
By increasing storage capacity

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What is the benefit of using private VLANs in a vSphere environment?

Options:

Improved VM performance
Enhanced network segmentation
Increased storage speed
Simplified management

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which tool is primarily used to monitor network performance in vSphere?

Options:

vCenter Server
vSphere Client
vRealize Operations
ESXi Shell

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: How does vSphere integrate software-defined networking (SDN) capabilities?

Options:

Through manual configuration
By using virtual appliances
By leveraging distributed switches
By direct hardware installation

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What is the primary purpose of vSpheres Network Health Check feature?

Options:

To monitor VM CPU usage
To validate network configurations
To backup network settings
To update firmware

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which feature provides load balancing for network traffic in vSphere?

Options:

vMotion
NIOC
DRS
vCenter Server

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What is the role of a virtual firewall in a vSphere environment?

Options:

To manage storage
To secure network traffic
To monitor CPU usage
To update VM tools

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which protocol is critical for remote management of ESXi hosts over the network?

Options:

Telnet
SSH
FTP
HTTP

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: How does vSphere support Quality of Service (QoS) for network traffic?

Options:

By using static IP addresses
Through bandwidth reservation
By limiting storage access
With manual configurations

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What is a key advantage of virtualizing network functions in vSphere?

Options:

Reduced hardware costs
Increased physical complexity
Higher energy consumption
Limited scalability

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which component is used to segregate traffic in a virtual network?

Options:

Virtual LANs (VLANs)
Storage arrays
Hypervisor kernels
Backup domains

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: How can vSphere administrators monitor the health of network adapters on ESXi hosts?

Options:

Using vSphere Client
Through SNMP traps
By reviewing system logs
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What is the purpose of setting up a dedicated management network in vSphere?

Options:

To reduce VM latency
To isolate management traffic
To increase storage throughput
To enable vMotion

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which tool can be used to perform network configuration backups in vSphere?

Options:

vSphere Replication
vCenter Server
PowerCLI scripts
ESXi Shell commands

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: How does vSphere ensure that network changes are consistently applied across all hosts?

Options:

By manual updates
Through distributed configurations
Using local policies
Via hardware switches

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What is a common method for troubleshooting network connectivity issues in vSphere?

Options:

Rebooting all hosts
Checking VMkernel logs
Increasing storage capacity
Disabling vMotion

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which configuration is important for ensuring optimal throughput on a distributed switch?

Options:

Proper MTU settings
Default IP addressing
Local DNS settings
Static routing

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What is the purpose of using vSphere Auto Deploy in network configurations?

Options:

To manually configure switches
To automate host provisioning
To back up VM data
To update firmware

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which feature allows vSphere to dynamically allocate network resources based on demand?

Options:

Static IP assignment
Dynamic Resource Scheduling
Network I/O Control
Manual configuration

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: How is traffic shaping used in vSphere networking?

Options:

To limit network throughput
To boost storage speed
To secure management access
To configure VM settings

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which component in vSphere helps manage multicast traffic?

Options:

vSphere Distributed Switch
vCenter Server
vMotion
DRS

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What is the primary goal of network segmentation in a vSphere environment?

Options:

To improve VM performance
To reduce broadcast traffic
To simplify storage management
To enhance CPU efficiency

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: How does vSphere support the integration of third-party network monitoring tools?

Options:

Through open APIs
By manual configuration
Using proprietary protocols
Direct hardware integration

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which network feature is essential for virtual machine migration across hosts?

Options:

Static routing
vMotion network
Distributed firewall
DNS management

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What is the role of Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) in vSphere?

Options:

To monitor VM performance
To combine multiple network links
To backup network configurations
To encrypt traffic

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: How can vSphere administrators validate network configurations across hosts?

Options:

By running connectivity tests
Through manual inspections
Using vCenter alerts
By rebooting hosts

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which practice is recommended for maintaining network performance in a virtual environment?

Options:

Increasing VM count
Regular firmware updates
Ignoring error logs
Disabling security features

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What is the benefit of using virtual machine templates in network configuration?

Options:

Simplifies VM deployment
Enhances network security
Improves CPU speed
Reduces storage use

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: How does vSphere handle network policy enforcement across different hosts?

Options:

Through manual rules
By centralized policies
Using local configurations
Via third-party tools

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which method is used to isolate network traffic for sensitive applications in vSphere?

Options:

VLAN tagging
IP filtering
MAC address locking
Port mirroring

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What does the term "east-west traffic" refer to in a vSphere network?

Options:

Traffic between VMs on the same host
Traffic between different data centers
Traffic from external networks
Traffic from storage arrays

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: How can administrators secure the communication between ESXi hosts and vCenter Server?

Options:

By disabling encryption
Using VPN tunnels
Enforcing SSL certificates
Implementing open ports

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which feature assists in minimizing packet loss during network congestion in vSphere?

Options:

Traffic shaping
Increased CPU allocation
Reduced memory usage
Disabling vMotion

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What is the role of multicast in a vSphere environment?

Options:

To support VM backups
To enable efficient data distribution
To manage storage
To control VM power states

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: How does vSphere handle dynamic changes in network topology?

Options:

By manual intervention
Through automated discovery
Using static routes
By disabling unused ports

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which aspect of network configuration is critical for supporting high VM density?

Options:

Network latency
IP address allocation
Bandwidth management
DNS resolution

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What is the significance of monitoring broadcast traffic in a vSphere network?

Options:

It indicates security breaches
It affects network performance
It manages storage I/O
It improves VM responsiveness

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: How does vSphere support the scalability of network configurations?

Options:

By using fixed settings
Through distributed management
By limiting VM connections
By enforcing static routes

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What is a benefit of integrating vSphere with external network controllers?

Options:

Increased hardware costs
Enhanced network visibility
Manual configuration
Reduced performance

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which approach is recommended for troubleshooting network latency issues in vSphere?

Options:

Rebooting all VMs
Using performance monitoring tools
Disabling NIC teaming
Removing VLANs

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: How can administrators ensure consistent network performance across vSphere clusters?

Options:

By standardizing configurations
Through random adjustments
By isolating clusters
By using different protocols

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: What is the importance of monitoring error rates on virtual network adapters?

Options:

They affect storage performance
They indicate potential network issues
They improve VM speed
They control CPU usage

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 5

Question: Which strategy is effective for mitigating network bottlenecks in a virtualized environment?

Options:

Increasing the number of VMs
Optimizing network configurations
Adding more storage arrays
Reducing CPU allocation

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 6

Question: What is a datastore in VMware vSphere?

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: True or False: ESXi is the virtualization platform on which you can create and run virtual machines.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: ESXi is a ________ hypervisor that is licensed as a part of vSphere. A free version is also available as a standalone server.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Features of ESXI include

Options:

High Security
Small disk footprint
Quick boot for faster patching and upgrades
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What drive formats are compatible with ESXI?

Options:

hard disks
SAN LUNs
SSD
SATADOM
diskless hosts

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Security features of ESXI include

Options:

Host-based firewall
Memory hardening
Kernel module integrity
Trusted Platform Module (TPM 2.0)
UEFI secure boot
Encrypted core dumps
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: To minimize the risk of an attack through the management interface, ESXi includes a firewall between the _____________ and the network.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is memory hardening?

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Match the following ESXi security features:

Options:

Memory hardening is a security technique used to protect systems from malicious attacks that exploit vulnerabilities in memory=Digital signing ensures the integrity and authenticity of modules,
drivers, and applications as they are loaded by the VMkernel
Trusted Platform Module= a hardware element that creates a trusted platform. This element affirms that the boot process and all drivers loaded are genuine
UEFI secure boot= for systems that support UEFI secure boot firmware,
which contains a digital certificate to which the VMware infrastructure bundles (VIBs) chain
ESXi Quick Boot=With this feature, ESXi can reboot without reinitializing the physical server BIOS.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is ESXi quickboot?

Options:

A feature that allows ESXi to reboot without reinitializing the physical server BIOS
A feature which reduces remediation time during host patch or host upgrade operations
A and B
None of the above

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: True or False: Quick Boot is disabled by default

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Can the following host support ESXi 8.0? -2 CPU cores -8GB RAM -32GB persistent storage

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: True or False: During the ESXi installation, the ESXi host is given a DHCP-assigned IP address.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: True or False: The DCUI is a text-based user interface with mouse-only interaction.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is a DCUI

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: How do you access the DCUI

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: True or False: You must configure management network settings before your ESXi host is operational.

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: How would an administrator use the DCUI to configure the root access settings?

Options:

Change the root password
activate or deactivate lockdown mode (limits the management of the host to vCenter)
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Why is time synchronization important?

Options:

For accurate performance graphs
For accurate time stamps in log messages
So that virtual machines have a source to syncronize
for log messages, auditing and troubleshooting
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: How can you configure NTP

Options:

Manually
Through NTP
Through PTP
using VMware Host Client
using vSphere Client
All of the above

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: True or False: NTP and PTP can run simultaneously

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is the difference between NTP and PTP

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: True or False: The ESXi firewall is activated by default

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What mode prevents remote users from logging in to the host directly and makes it accessible only through the DCUI or vCenter

Options:

Lockdown mode
Lockout mode
Admin mode
Shutdown mode

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: T/F ESXI Quick Boot bypasses the need to reinitialize the physical server bios during reboot

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: What is the protocol number that we use to time synchronize from the ESXi host to PTP client?

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: Which feature helpsminimize the risk of attacks through the management interface?

Systems Virtualization - ICM Module 3

Question: T/F The DCUI is a text based user interface with only mouse interaction

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Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

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Systems Analysis - Chapter 1

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